Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine antagonist.It’s

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A: 1. Metoclopramide is known to block dopamine receptors, making it a dopamine antagonist. 2. This action helps in treating nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal issues by enhancing motility. 3. Therefore, the statement that Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine antagonist is TRUE. Summary of other choices: B: FALSE - Incorrect, as Metoclopramide is indeed a dopamine antagonist. C: All - Incorrect, as not all the choices are correct. D: None of the above - Incorrect, as the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because angina pectoris is defined as severe chest pain caused by insufficient blood supply to the heart due to coronary disease. This pain typically radiates to the left shoulder and arm due to reduced oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. Option B describes ventricular fibrillation, not angina. Option C refers to heart failure, not angina. Option D is incorrect as it includes unrelated conditions, making it an incorrect choice. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer for the definition of angina pectoris.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (D - Sodium nitroprusside): 1. Sodium nitroprusside is a direct NO donor, releasing nitric oxide (NO) upon metabolism. 2. NO is a potent vasodilator that acts on smooth muscle to relax blood vessels. 3. This vasodilation leads to decreased systemic vascular resistance and lower blood pressure. 4. Nifedipine, Hydralazine, and Minoxidil work through different mechanisms and do not directly release NO. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker. B: Hydralazine is a direct-acting vasodilator that works by relaxing arterial smooth muscle. C: Minoxidil is a direct-acting vasodilator that opens potassium channels in vascular smooth muscle.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pituitary diabetes insipidus. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone, is indicated for the treatment of central diabetes insipidus, a condition where the body produces insufficient amounts of vasopressin. Vasopressin helps regulate water balance in the body by reducing urine output. Diabetes mellitus (choice A) is a different condition related to insulin deficiency or resistance. Hypertension (choice B) is not a direct indication for vasopressin use. Incompleted abortion (choice D) is unrelated to vasopressin indications.Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the intended therapeutic use of vasopressin.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Rationale: A: True. Estradiol binds strongly to α2-globulin and albumin with lower affinity compared to estrone and estriol. B: True. Estradiol is metabolized in the liver and other tissues to estrone, estriol, and their derivatives before being excreted in bile. C: True. Estrone and estriol have lower affinity for estrogen receptors compared to estradiol but still exhibit estrogenic effects. Therefore, all statements are accurate, making option D the correct answer. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately depict the properties and metabolism of estrogens.