Methotrexate is a folate antagonist. It inhibits enzymes required for DNA base synthesis. To prevent harm to normal cells, a fully activated form of folic acid known as leucovorin (folinic acid; citrovorum

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Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions

Question 1 of 5

Methotrexate is a folate antagonist. It inhibits enzymes required for DNA base synthesis. To prevent harm to normal cells, a fully activated form of folic acid known as leucovorin (folinic acid; citrovorum

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Administration of leucovorin in the context of methotrexate treatment is known as rescue therapy. Leucovorin is used as a rescue agent to reduce the toxicity of methotrexate on normal cells. By providing leucovorin, which is a fully activated form of folic acid, the body can bypass the inhibition caused by methotrexate and continue with DNA base synthesis. This helps protect healthy cells and tissues from the toxic effects of methotrexate while allowing the chemotherapy to target and kill cancer cells. Rescue therapy with leucovorin is typically timed to occur after methotrexate administration to maximize its protective effects on normal cells.

Question 2 of 5

An otherwise healthy 78-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 168/80 at a routine check, and similar pressures are confirmed on three separate occasions despite adhering to dietary advice. Investigations including an ECG and creatinine/electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Systolic hypertension (168 mmHg) in the elderly increases cardiovascular risk, despite normal diastolic (80 mmHg). Echo isn't first-line without organ damage signs (normal ECG). Reassurance ignores systolic risk; treatment is indicated (>160 mmHg). Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is less preferred initially due to hypotension risk. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is effective, but amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is most appropriate per guidelines (e.g., NICE) for isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly, offering vascular protection and tolerability. Its efficacy reduces stroke and MI risk, critical at this age.

Question 3 of 5

A patient diagnosed with alcoholism has questions about his medications. The nurse correctly explains that alcoholism can be associated with deficiency of which vitamin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Alcoholism is commonly associated with deficiencies in B-complex vitamins, particularly thiamine (B1), due to poor dietary intake and impaired absorption. Vitamin A (A), vitamin D (C), and vitamin K (D) deficiencies are less commonly linked to alcoholism.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin's efficacy drops with high vitamin K intake, like spinach , risking clots'avoidance is key. Milk doesn't help. Stopping or doubling risks instability. Spinach avoidance aligns with warfarin's action, critical in anticoagulation where diet impacts INR, making A the essential instruction.

Question 5 of 5

The following drugs undergo phase II metabolism by hepatic acetylation enzymes (N-acetyltransferases):

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Isoniazid undergoes phase II acetylation via hepatic N-acetyltransferases, and the rate of metabolism can vary between slow and fast acetylators.

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