Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C (Analgin) being the correct answer for possible adverse effect of Methemoglobinemia: 1. Analgin contains metamizole, which can lead to methemoglobinemia by causing the oxidation of hemoglobin. 2. Methemoglobinemia is a condition where hemoglobin is unable to transport oxygen efficiently. 3. Aspirin (choice A), Paracetamol (choice B), and Ketorolac (choice D) do not typically cause methemoglobinemia. Summary: - Choice A (Aspirin) is incorrect because it does not cause methemoglobinemia. - Choice B (Paracetamol) is incorrect because it does not cause methemoglobinemia. - Choice D (Ketorolac) is incorrect because it does not cause methemoglobinemia. - Choice C (Analgin) is correct due to its potential to cause methemoglobinemia through the presence of metamizole.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gastric ulceration. Caffeine is not typically associated with causing gastric ulcers. Caffeine is actually used as a treatment for migraines due to its ability to constrict blood vessels. It is also used to relieve drowsiness (somnolence) by stimulating the central nervous system. Additionally, caffeine can help improve cardiovascular function and respiratory efficiency, so choices A, B, and C are all potential therapeutic uses of caffeine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Opioid withdrawal symptoms typically start 8-10 hours after the last dose due to the short half-life of opioids. This timing aligns with the onset of symptoms such as anxiety, sweating, and muscle aches. The other choices are incorrect. Choice B is false because the onset of opioid withdrawal symptoms does not occur immediately after the last dose. Choice C, All, is incorrect as it implies that all choices are correct, which is not the case. Choice D, Null, is also incorrect as it does not provide any relevant information regarding the onset of opioid withdrawal symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because ketamine anesthesia is associated with cardiovascular stimulation due to its sympathomimetic effects. It also increases cerebral blood flow, oxygen consumption, and intracranial pressure. Additionally, disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, and vivid dreams can occur post-anesthesia due to its psychotomimetic properties. Choices A, B, and C individually do not fully encompass the range of effects associated with ketamine anesthesia, making D the correct choice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Prochlorperazine is a typical antipsychotic that also has antiemetic properties due to its dopamine receptor blocking activity. 2. Neuroleptics, like prochlorperazine, target dopamine receptors in the brain to alleviate symptoms. 3. Metoclopramide works by enhancing motility in the upper GI tract and has no direct relation to neuroleptics. 4. Nabilone is a synthetic cannabinoid used as an antiemetic, not related to neuroleptics. 5. Tropisetron is a serotonin receptor antagonist used as an antiemetic, not related to neuroleptics. Summary: Prochlorperazine is the correct answer as it shares the mechanism of action with neuroleptics by targeting dopamine receptors. Metoclopramide, nabilone, and tropisetron do not have this direct relationship with neuroleptics.