ATI RN
CNS Drugs Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
Meperidine is classified as a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the classification of drugs based on their chemical properties is crucial for predicting their behavior in the body. Meperidine, also known as Demerol, is classified as a weak base. This classification is based on its chemical structure, which contains a nitrogen atom that can accept a proton, making it basic in nature. Meperidine is a synthetic opioid analgesic used to treat moderate to severe pain. As a weak base, it is more likely to be protonated in acidic environments like the stomach, which can impact its absorption and distribution in the body. This property also influences its excretion and metabolism. Option A, weak acid, is incorrect because meperidine does not have acidic properties that would donate a proton in a solution. Option B, salt, is incorrect because meperidine is not typically administered as a salt form but rather as the free base. Option D is incomplete, but it would also be incorrect as meperidine is specifically classified as a weak base due to its chemical structure. Understanding the classification of drugs like meperidine based on their chemical properties not only helps in predicting their pharmacokinetics but also aids in rational prescribing and monitoring for potential drug interactions. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals in optimizing patient care and outcomes when managing CNS drug therapies.
Question 2 of 5
Following is an inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptors
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) β-Carbolines. β-Carbolines act as inverse agonists of benzodiazepine receptors by binding to the same site as benzodiazepines but producing an opposite effect. Benzodiazepines are positive allosteric modulators at GABA-A receptors, enhancing GABAergic inhibition and exerting anxiolytic, sedative, and anticonvulsant effects. In contrast, β-Carbolines produce anxiogenic and proconvulsant effects by negatively modulating GABA-A receptors. Option A) Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose but is not an inverse agonist. Option C) Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used for anxiolytic effects, not an inverse agonist. Option D) Glutethimide is a sedative-hypnotic drug with barbiturate-like effects, not an inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptors. Understanding the pharmacological actions of CNS drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding drug therapy. Knowing the differences between agonists, antagonists, and inverse agonists at specific receptors helps in selecting appropriate treatments and understanding potential side effects and interactions. This knowledge is essential in clinical practice to ensure safe and effective pharmacotherapy for patients.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents can cause muscarinic responses such as bradycardia and increased glandular secretions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Tubocurarine. Tubocurarine is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that can cause muscarinic responses such as bradycardia and increased glandular secretions. This is because tubocurarine has some degree of non-selective cholinergic activity, leading to stimulation of muscarinic receptors. Option B) Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that acts on nicotinic receptors, not muscarinic receptors. It does not cause muscarinic responses like bradycardia. Option C) Pancuronium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent but does not have significant muscarinic activity. It primarily acts on nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Option D) Decamethonium is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent similar to succinylcholine and also acts on nicotinic receptors, not muscarinic receptors. Understanding the specific characteristics of each neuromuscular blocking agent is crucial in pharmacology to ensure safe and effective use in clinical practice. Knowing the potential side effects and mechanisms of action of these drugs is essential for healthcare professionals when managing patients requiring neuromuscular blockade during procedures or mechanical ventilation.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following benzodiazepines is expected to cause the least amount of adverse effects in the elderly?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of CNS drugs pharmacology, understanding the effects of benzodiazepines in the elderly is crucial due to age-related changes in drug metabolism and increased sensitivity to adverse effects. In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Oxazepam, as it is expected to cause the least amount of adverse effects in the elderly compared to the other options. Oxazepam is a benzodiazepine that is primarily metabolized by conjugation, bypassing the hepatic oxidative pathways that are often compromised in the elderly. This means that oxazepam is less likely to accumulate in the elderly population, reducing the risk of drug interactions and adverse effects associated with impaired hepatic function. A) Chlordiazepoxide and B) Diazepam are metabolized through hepatic oxidative pathways, which can lead to drug accumulation in the elderly and an increased risk of adverse effects such as sedation, confusion, and falls. These benzodiazepines are more likely to cause side effects due to their longer half-lives and active metabolites. C) Flurazepam is a long-acting benzodiazepine with active metabolites that can accumulate in the elderly, leading to prolonged sedation, cognitive impairment, and an increased risk of falls. Educationally, understanding the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic differences between benzodiazepines in the elderly population is essential for safe prescribing practices. By recognizing the characteristics of benzodiazepines like oxazepam that are less prone to adverse effects in the elderly, healthcare professionals can minimize the risks associated with CNS drug therapy in this vulnerable population.
Question 5 of 5
The diuretic of choice for the initial treatment of a patient with either acute or chronic renal failure (ARF, CRF) whose creatinine clearance is below 25 ml/min is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of treating a patient with acute or chronic renal failure (ARF, CRF) and a creatinine clearance below 25 ml/min, the diuretic of choice is furosemide (Option C). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the thick ascending loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, promoting diuresis. Furosemide is preferred in renal failure as it works despite reduced renal function by acting on the loop of Henle, which is typically not as affected in renal failure compared to other segments of the nephron. This makes it more effective in patients with compromised kidney function. Hydrochlorothiazide (Option A) is a thiazide diuretic that acts on the distal convoluted tubule and is less effective in patients with reduced renal function. Bumetanide (Option B) is a loop diuretic similar to furosemide but may not be as well-tolerated in renal failure patients. Ethacrynic acid (Option D) is another loop diuretic but is less commonly used due to its side effect profile and availability of other options. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action and pharmacokinetics of diuretics is crucial in selecting the appropriate agent for patients with renal impairment. This knowledge helps healthcare providers make informed decisions to optimize therapeutic outcomes while minimizing adverse effects.