ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Melanie is a 31-year-old patient who is being evaluated following a routine urinalysis that revealed microscopic hematuria. She was between menses and has no other identifiable explanation for hematuria. She has no significant medical history and otherwise is without complaint. The AGACNP knows that workup for Melanie should include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upper urinary imaging is the appropriate next step in the workup for Melanie based on the presentation of microscopic hematuria with no other identifiable explanation. Upper urinary imaging, such as an ultrasound or CT scan, can help evaluate the upper urinary tract, including the kidneys and ureters, to investigate potential causes of hematuria. This step is commonly recommended before proceeding to invasive procedures like cystoscopy or consultation with a urologist. It allows for a non-invasive assessment of the upper urinary system to identify any potential abnormalities that may be causing the hematuria in the patient.
Question 2 of 5
Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient presents with a jagged laceration on his forearm that is still open and requires sutures. The appropriate management for this patient involves local anesthesia to reduce pain, thorough cleansing of the wound to prevent infection, and wound exploration to assess for any foreign bodies that may be present. Suturing the wound is necessary to promote proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Antibiotic therapy may be indicated if signs of infection are present, but it is not mentioned in the scenario as a primary management step. Tetanus prophylaxis should also be considered given the mechanism of injury involving a dirty object.
Question 3 of 5
A client is declared fit for vaginal birth after cesarean section if
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vaginal birth after cesarean section is possible if the previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery
Question 4 of 5
What are the most effective strategies to reduce the risk of preterm labor in high-risk pregnancies?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Progesterone therapy is evidence-based and effective in reducing preterm labor in high-risk pregnancies.
Question 5 of 5
In marginal cephalopelvic disproportion,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Marginal cephalopelvic disproportion can often be managed in labor without the need for a cesarean.