ATI RN
The Cardiovascular Pharmacology of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids, a crucial component of the cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. By blocking mycolic acid synthesis, isoniazid disrupts the integrity of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell death. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid does not affect protein synthesis, RNA synthesis, or ADP synthesis. These processes are not targeted by isoniazid in its mechanism of action against tuberculosis.
Question 2 of 5
Tick the drug belonging to gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leuprolide. Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist that works by suppressing the release of gonadotropins, ultimately leading to decreased production of testosterone or estrogen. This is commonly used in the treatment of hormone-sensitive cancers, endometriosis, and certain reproductive disorders. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, not a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist. C: Flutamide is an androgen receptor antagonist used in the treatment of prostate cancer, not a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist. D: Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor that inhibits estrogen synthesis, not a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist.
Question 3 of 5
For which one of the following patients would it be most important to recommend an antihyperlipidemic drug at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the patient at highest risk for cardiovascular disease. Step 2: Assess patient characteristics - Patient 2 has diabetes and hypertension. Step 3: Diabetes and hypertension increase cardiovascular risk. Step 4: Antihyperlipidemic drugs reduce cardiovascular risk in patients with diabetes and hypertension. Step 5: Therefore, it is most important to recommend an antihyperlipidemic drug to Patient 2. Summary: - Patient 1: No specific risk factors mentioned. - Patient 3: No information provided to indicate high cardiovascular risk. - Patient 4: Age and gender alone do not warrant immediate antihyperlipidemic drug recommendation.
Question 4 of 5
Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of cardiovascular pharmacology, understanding the mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin is crucial for healthcare professionals. Unfractionated heparin works by binding to antithrombin III, which in turn inactivates clotting factors. In this case, the correct answer is D) All of the above because unfractionated heparin inactivates both factor Xa and factor IIa (thrombin). Option A) Xa is incorrect because it only refers to factor Xa, not factor IIa. Option B) lxa seems to be a typographical error and does not correspond to any known clotting factor. Option C) lla is also incorrect as it does not correspond to any relevant clotting factor involved in the mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the specific interactions and targets of anticoagulant medications like unfractionated heparin. By knowing which clotting factors are affected, healthcare providers can better predict and manage the anticoagulant effects of medications, leading to improved patient care and outcomes in cardiovascular conditions.
Question 5 of 5
After oral administration peak concentration of digoxin is reached in
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer to the question is option D) 4 to 6 hours. Rationale: After oral administration, digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. It then undergoes distribution, binding to tissues, particularly in the heart. Digoxin has a relatively slow absorption rate and reaches peak plasma concentration in about 4 to 6 hours. This delayed peak concentration is due to factors such as the drug's absorption kinetics and distribution throughout the body. Why the other options are incorrect: A) 1 to 2 mins: This is incorrect because digoxin does not reach peak concentration in such a short timeframe. B) 30 to 60 mins: This is also incorrect as digoxin takes longer to reach peak plasma concentration than 30 to 60 minutes. C) 5 to 10 mins: Digoxin does not reach peak concentration within 5 to 10 minutes after oral administration. Educational context: Understanding the pharmacokinetics of drugs like digoxin is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in cardiology or pharmacology. Knowing the timing of peak concentration helps in determining the onset of action, duration of effect, and potential side effects of the drug. This knowledge is essential for safe and effective medication management in patients with cardiovascular conditions.