ATI RN
Conception and Fetal Development NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Match each term with its description. Blastocyst
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Part of the blastocyst that will develop into the placenta. A blastocyst is a structure formed in the early stages of embryonic development. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will develop into the fetus, while the trophoblast, which is the part referenced in option C, will develop into the placenta. Option A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific part of the blastocyst that will develop into the placenta. Understanding the components of the blastocyst is crucial in grasping the process of fetal development and the formation of essential structures like the placenta, which is vital for the exchange of nutrients and waste between the mother and the developing fetus. This question tests the test-taker's knowledge of early embryonic development and the differentiation of cells within the blastocyst. It reinforces the importance of understanding these concepts for healthcare professionals working in fields related to obstetrics, gynecology, and embryology. By knowing the specific roles of different parts of the blastocyst, healthcare providers can better comprehend the processes involved in conception and fetal development, leading to improved patient care and outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
What are functions of the placenta?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Produces the hormones estrogen, progesterone, and relaxin. The placenta is a vital organ during pregnancy responsible for various functions to support fetal development. It produces hormones like estrogen, progesterone, and relaxin, which are crucial for maintaining pregnancy, promoting fetal growth, and preparing the body for childbirth. These hormones play key roles in regulating maternal and fetal physiology. Option B) None is incorrect because the placenta does have important functions, as mentioned above, and does not have a passive role in pregnancy. Option C) Feeds the fetus is incorrect because while the placenta facilitates the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the maternal and fetal circulations, it does not directly "feed" the fetus in the traditional sense. Option D) None is incorrect for the reasons stated above regarding the active role of the placenta in supporting pregnancy and fetal development. Understanding the functions of the placenta is crucial for healthcare providers working in obstetrics and maternal-fetal medicine to ensure they can monitor and support pregnancies effectively. By grasping the role of the placenta in hormone production, nutrient exchange, and waste elimination, healthcare professionals can better care for pregnant individuals and their developing fetuses.
Question 3 of 5
Fewer fetal movements than expected suggest possible:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Reduced placental perfusion with fetal hypoxia. When a pregnant woman experiences fewer fetal movements than expected, it can indicate that the fetus is not receiving an adequate oxygen supply due to reduced placental perfusion. This can lead to fetal hypoxia, which is a serious concern as it can impact the baby's growth and development. Option A) Intrauterine fetal growth restriction is incorrect because while reduced fetal movements can be a sign of this condition, the primary concern in this question is the cause of the reduced movements, which is related to oxygen supply rather than growth restriction. Option B) Inaccurate gestational age dating is incorrect as it would not directly cause reduced fetal movements. Gestational age dating may impact other aspects of prenatal care, but it is not the most likely explanation for reduced movements. Option C) Rapid intrauterine fetal maturation is also incorrect as it does not align with the presented scenario. Rapid maturation would not typically result in fewer fetal movements but rather may present with other symptoms or indicators. Understanding the reasons behind reduced fetal movements and their implications is crucial for healthcare providers caring for pregnant women. Recognizing signs of fetal distress, such as decreased movements, can prompt timely interventions to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. This knowledge is essential for nurses, midwives, and other healthcare professionals involved in prenatal care to provide optimal support and management for pregnant women.
Question 4 of 5
A woman who is assessing fetal movements each day should notify her health care provider if:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, option B is the correct answer. A pregnant woman should notify her healthcare provider if fetal movements are fewer than the minimum set by the provider. This is crucial because a decrease in fetal movements could indicate potential issues with the baby's health or well-being. It could be a sign of fetal distress, placental problems, or other complications that require immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because feeling more than six movements during a 30- to 60-minute period is generally a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. Option C is incorrect because a consistent movement pattern from day to day is considered normal in most cases. Option D is incorrect because the timing of fetal movements (morning vs. evening) is not typically a cause for concern unless there is a drastic change in the baby's movements pattern. Educationally, it is important for healthcare providers to educate pregnant women on monitoring fetal movements as it is a key indicator of fetal well-being. Teaching them the normal patterns of fetal movements and when to seek medical help can help prevent adverse outcomes and promote a healthy pregnancy. Regular prenatal visits and communication with healthcare providers are essential for monitoring fetal development and ensuring the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Question 5 of 5
In presenting to obstetric nurses interested in genetics, the genetic nurse identifies the primary risk(s) associated with genetic testing as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Denial of insurance benefits. This is because genetic testing can potentially reveal information that insurance companies may use to deny coverage or increase premiums based on pre-existing conditions. This risk is a significant concern for individuals considering genetic testing, as it could impact their access to healthcare services and financial well-being. Option A) Anxiety and altered family relationships, while valid concerns associated with genetic testing, are not considered the primary risks. Genetic counseling and support services are typically available to help individuals navigate through these emotional challenges. Option C) High false-positive results associated with genetic testing can be a risk, but it is not the primary risk. False positives can lead to unnecessary anxiety and follow-up testing, but they are usually addressed through confirmatory testing protocols. Option D) Ethnic and socioeconomic disparity associated with genetic testing is an important consideration, but it is not the primary risk associated with genetic testing. Disparities in access to testing and healthcare services do exist and should be addressed to ensure equitable care for all individuals. In an educational context, understanding the risks associated with genetic testing is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in obstetrics and genetics. By being aware of these risks, nurses can provide informed support and guidance to individuals considering genetic testing, helping them make well-informed decisions about their healthcare.