ATI RN
Medical Surgical Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mary, who is diagnosed with osteomyelitis, may not heal properly unless she has
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the case of Mary diagnosed with osteomyelitis, the correct answer is A) Debridement and drainage of the area. Osteomyelitis is a serious infection of the bone that requires thorough cleaning and removal of infected tissue (debridement) to facilitate healing. Drainage helps to remove pus and other infectious materials, allowing the body to combat the infection effectively. Option B) Immobilization of the area is not the primary treatment for osteomyelitis. While immobilization may be necessary in some cases to prevent further damage, it does not address the infection itself. Option C) Ice packs alternating with moist heat, applied externally, are not appropriate for treating osteomyelitis. This condition requires internal treatment to reach the infected bone tissue. Option D) Internal fixation device inserted is not the correct treatment for osteomyelitis. This option refers to surgical hardware used to stabilize bones in fractures or orthopedic procedures, not to treat bone infections. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind the treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial for nursing practice. Debridement and drainage are essential to remove the source of infection and promote healing in such cases. Nurses must be able to identify appropriate interventions based on the underlying pathology to provide effective care for patients with osteomyelitis.
Question 2 of 5
Priority treatment of a fracture is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of prioritizing treatment for a fracture, the correct answer is B) Immobilization of the area. Immobilization plays a crucial role in stabilizing the fracture site, preventing further injury, reducing pain, and promoting proper healing. By immobilizing the affected area, the risk of additional damage or displacement of the fracture is minimized, facilitating the natural healing process. Option A) Surgical reduction of the fracture involves an invasive procedure to realign the bones. While it may be necessary in some cases, it is not always the initial priority, especially in cases where immobilization can adequately stabilize the fracture. Option C) Insertion of an internal fixation device is a surgical procedure that involves the use of screws, plates, or rods to stabilize the fracture internally. This intervention is usually considered after initial stabilization through immobilization. Option D) Reduction of the fracture is a general term that refers to the realignment of the broken bones. While important, without subsequent immobilization, the risk of further injury remains high. In a medical-surgical nursing context, understanding the principles of fracture management is essential. Nurses must prioritize interventions that ensure patient safety, comfort, and optimal healing outcomes. Immobilization serves as the foundation of fracture management, allowing for subsequent interventions if needed. Nurses play a vital role in assessing, implementing, and evaluating these treatments to promote positive patient outcomes and prevent complications.
Question 3 of 5
Mary, who is scheduled for a thoracentesis, asks why there is so much fluid in the pleural space. You respond by saying
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, option A is the correct response to Mary's question about the presence of fluid in the pleural space prior to her thoracentesis procedure. This answer explains that the buildup of fluid in the pleural space is due to the body's inability to remove the fluid effectively, leading to a condition known as pleural effusion. Option B is incorrect because it suggests an unrelated cause related to medication administration error, which is not relevant to the physiological explanation of pleural effusion. Option C is also incorrect as oxygen therapy typically does not directly cause fluid accumulation in the pleural space. Option D is misleading as bumetanide is a diuretic medication commonly used to reduce fluid retention in conditions such as heart failure and edema, so it is unlikely to be the cause of the fluid buildup in the pleural space. Educationally, understanding the pathophysiology of pleural effusion is crucial for nurses caring for patients undergoing procedures like thoracentesis. By grasping the underlying reasons for fluid accumulation in the pleural space, nurses can provide accurate information to patients like Mary and offer appropriate care and support before, during, and after the procedure.
Question 4 of 5
Tom reports abdominal pain that started over the periumbilical area and moved to the right lower quadrant area. Tom probably has
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, Tom most likely has appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with pain starting near the periumbilical area and then shifting to the right lower quadrant, a classic symptom known as McBurney's point tenderness. This specific progression of pain is a crucial indicator of appendicitis. Crohn's disease (Option A) primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract and does not usually present with localized right lower quadrant pain. Cholecystitis (Option B) involves inflammation of the gallbladder and typically presents with pain in the upper right quadrant, not the lower right quadrant. Diverticulitis (Option D) involves inflammation of diverticula in the colon and is more commonly associated with left lower quadrant pain. Educationally, understanding the characteristic presentation of appendicitis is vital for nurses to make accurate assessments and timely referrals. This knowledge can help prevent complications such as perforation, which can be life-threatening. Nurses must be able to differentiate between different abdominal pathologies based on symptoms to provide appropriate care and interventions.
Question 5 of 5
A confirmatory laboratory test for HIV includes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of HIV testing, the correct confirmatory laboratory test is the Western blot (Option A). This test is used to detect specific antibodies to HIV proteins, providing a definitive diagnosis. The Western blot is considered the gold standard for confirming HIV infection due to its high specificity and ability to detect multiple antibodies. Option B, Low white blood cell count (WBC), is not a confirmatory test for HIV. While HIV can lead to a decreased WBC count, it is not a specific test for diagnosing the infection. Option C, Comprehensive metabolic panel, is a general test that assesses various aspects of a person's metabolism, but it is not specific to HIV diagnosis. Option D, Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), is an initial screening test for HIV, not a confirmatory test. ELISA is used to detect HIV antibodies or antigens in the blood, but positive results require confirmation with a more specific test like the Western blot. Understanding the importance of confirmatory testing in HIV diagnosis is crucial for healthcare professionals. It ensures accurate results and appropriate management of the condition. Educating students on the specific tests used in HIV diagnosis helps them develop a comprehensive understanding of diagnostic procedures in medical-surgical nursing practice.