Mark the location of the beginning of the plateau phase on this dose-response relationship curve.

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Mark the location of the beginning of the plateau phase on this dose-response relationship curve.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The plateau phase, where max effect holds despite dose increases, is the curve's top horizontal stretch, per pharmacodynamic curves. Beginning is pre-effect. Upward move is onset. Mid-upstroke is rising. Plateau marks saturation, standard in graphs.

Question 2 of 9

A client has been prescribed Prednisone for an inflammatory condition and is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Prednisone in the morning to prevent insomnia. Prednisone can cause insomnia as a side effect, so taking it in the morning can help minimize this issue. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of Prednisone administration to optimize its effectiveness and minimize adverse effects.

Question 3 of 9

When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.

Question 4 of 9

After administering the drug Atropine to a patient, the nurse notices side effects of dry mouth, tachycardia, and drowsiness. The nurse suspects ans overdose of the drug. Which of the following is the antidote for Atropine?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Physostigmine is the antidote for Atropine overdose. Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine. Physostigmine works by increasing the levels of acetylcholine in the body, counteracting the effects of Atropine. It can help reverse the side effects of Atropine overdose, such as dry mouth, tachycardia, and drowsiness. Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepines, Naloxone is the antidote for opioids, and Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.

Question 5 of 9

A 19-year-old G1P0 woman at 34 weeks gestation lost her eyeglasses for a day. Constant squinting causes her to develop a headache. She asks her doctor for a pain reliever. Which of the following drugs may disrupt her fetus' circulatory system?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Pain relief in pregnancy avoids fetal harm. Ketorolac , an NSAID, risks ductal closure, disrupting fetal circulation. Acetaminophen , Codeine , Hydrocodone , and Morphine (E) are safer. Ketorolac's prostaglandin inhibition contraindicates it late in gestation.

Question 6 of 9

A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.

Question 7 of 9

A client has a new prescription for Simvastatin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Grapefruit can increase the levels of simvastatin in the blood, leading to an increased risk of serious side effects, including muscle pain or damage. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication to prevent potential complications.

Question 8 of 9

A client has been prescribed Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Methotrexate is hepatotoxic, and avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent liver damage. However, Option A (Take this medication with food to prevent nausea) could also be correct, as Methotrexate commonly causes nausea, and taking it with food can help alleviate this side effect. However, the most important instruction is to avoid alcohol due to the risk of liver toxicity.

Question 9 of 9

A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

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