ATI RN
Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Marion presents to your office with back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Marion's presentation of back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention is concerning for cauda equina syndrome. Cauda equina syndrome is a rare but serious condition caused by the compression of the bundle of nerves at the bottom of the spinal cord, known as the cauda equina. This compression can result in a variety of symptoms, including back pain, sciatica, changes in bowel and bladder function (such as constipation and urinary retention), as well as lower extremity weakness or numbness.
Question 2 of 9
Mrs. Hill is a 28-year-old African-American with a history of SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus). She has noticed a raised, dark red rash on her legs. When you press on the rash, it doesn't blanch. What would you tell her regarding her rash?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The raised, dark red rash that does not blanch when pressed on, typically known as erythema nodosum, is a common skin manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Given Mrs. Hill's history of SLE, it is likely that her rash is related to her autoimmune condition rather than an exposure to a chemical or an allergic reaction. It is important for her to discuss this new symptom with her healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of her lupus.
Question 3 of 9
A 35-year-old archaeologist comes to your office (located in Phoenix, Arizona) for a regular skin check-up. She has just returned from her annual dig site in Greece. She has fair skin and reddish-blonde hair. She has a family history of melanoma. She has many freckles scattered across her skin. From this description, which of the following is not a risk factor for melanoma in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the given scenario, being a 35-year-old archaeologist with fair skin, a family history of melanoma, and many freckles scattered across her skin are all risk factors for melanoma. Age (choice A) is a relevant risk factor as melanoma incidence increases with age. Actinic lentigines (choice C), also known as sunspots, are precancerous skin lesions that can increase the risk of developing melanoma. Heavy sun exposure (choice D) is a significant risk factor as cumulative sun exposure over time can contribute to the development of melanoma.
Question 4 of 9
Josh is a 14-year-old boy who presents with a sore throat. On examination, you notice dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on his left side with a deep breath. What does this indicate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on the left side with a deep breath is suggestive of splenomegaly. However, this finding alone is not definitive for an enlarged spleen. The size of the spleen can vary, and further examination is required to confirm if the spleen is indeed enlarged. Therefore, Option B is the most appropriate choice as it indicates that the spleen is possibly enlarged, and close attention should be paid to further examination to confirm its status. Further workup, such as imaging studies or blood tests, may be necessary to evaluate the size and function of the spleen in this case.
Question 5 of 9
Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with arterial emboli. Arterial emboli are blood clots that travel through the bloodstream and get lodged in a blood vessel, blocking blood flow to a certain area. When an embolus affects the arteries supplying the arm, it can lead to diminished pulses in the affected arm, such as the radial pulse in the wrist. This diminished pulse is due to decreased blood flow to the area beyond the blockage caused by the embolus. This distinguishes arterial emboli from the other options listed, as aortic insufficiency, hyperthyroidism, and early "warm" septic shock typically do not cause isolated diminished radial pulses.
Question 6 of 9
A 50-year-old body builder is upset by a letter of denial from his life insurance company. He is very lean but has gained 2 pounds over the past 6 months. You personally performed his health assessment and found no problems whatsoever. He says he is classified as "high risk" because of obesity. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Since the life insurance company is classifying the body builder as "high risk" due to obesity, it is important to assess whether his weight gain is primarily fat accumulation around the waist. Measuring his waist circumference can provide valuable information about the distribution of body fat. Abdominal obesity, indicated by an increased waist measurement, is a significant risk factor for health issues such as heart disease, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome. By measuring his waist, you can determine if his weight gain is indeed a cause for concern in terms of health risks, rather than just considering the overall weight gain. This information can help you provide more targeted advice on how to address any potential health concerns related to the weight gain.
Question 7 of 9
Marion presents to your office with back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Marion's presentation of back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention is concerning for cauda equina syndrome. Cauda equina syndrome is a rare but serious condition caused by the compression of the bundle of nerves at the bottom of the spinal cord, known as the cauda equina. This compression can result in a variety of symptoms, including back pain, sciatica, changes in bowel and bladder function (such as constipation and urinary retention), as well as lower extremity weakness or numbness.
Question 8 of 9
How often, according to American Cancer Society recommendations, should a woman undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to American Cancer Society recommendations, a woman should undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician every year. Regular breast exams help in early detection of breast cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes and treatment options. Annual screenings are crucial in monitoring changes in breast health and detecting any abnormalities at the earliest stage possible. Therefore, it is advised that women follow this guideline to prioritize their breast health and well-being.
Question 9 of 9
His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rectal polyp is a growth that originates from the inner lining of the rectum and protrudes into the rectal canal. It may present as a soft, smooth, nontender mass on digital rectal examination. Rectal polyps are usually benign, but some may have the potential to become cancerous if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to evaluate and remove polyps to prevent complications. In this case, the description of a pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum is most suggestive of a rectal polyp.