Marco, age 83, has dementia and difficulty feeding himself despite the fact that there is nothing wrong with his motor functions. Which term should the nurse use to document this finding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apraxia. Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements despite the absence of motor or sensory impairment. In this case, Marco is experiencing difficulty feeding himself despite intact motor functions, indicating apraxia. A: Aphasia is the loss of ability to understand or express speech, which is not the case here. C: Agnosia is the inability to recognize objects or people, which is not relevant to Marco's situation. D: Disinhibition anergia is not a recognized term in the context of this question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because psychiatric-mental health nursing practice involves assessing clients, providing education, administering medications, and screening for suicide risk. Assessment helps in understanding the client's mental health status. Education empowers clients to manage their condition. Medication administration ensures proper treatment. Suicide risk screening is crucial for client safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they include tasks outside the scope of psychiatric-mental health nursing such as medical diagnosis, giving orders, assisting with ADLs, and giving advice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because consistency in adhering to unit guidelines provides a structured environment that can help a client experiencing concrete thinking feel safe and secure. It establishes predictability, which is crucial for building trust. Calling the client by name (B) is a common courtesy but may not directly address the client's concrete thinking. Sharing what the client is feeling (C) may not be effective as the client may have difficulty understanding or processing emotions. Teaching the meaning of idioms (D) is irrelevant to establishing trust with a client experiencing concrete thinking.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a nurse with a background in medical/surgical care would likely have experience managing chronically depressed clients, who may require a more general medical approach. Choices B, C, and D involve more specialized psychiatric care, such as managing active psychosis, paranoid thinking, or personality disorders, which may require specific psychiatric training and interventions beyond the nurse's medical/surgical expertise. Therefore, assigning a nurse to care for a chronically depressed client aligns with their skill set and minimizes the risk of inadequate care or potential harm to clients with more acute psychiatric needs.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: explain that the patient will continue to improve if the medication is taken regularly. This is the best course of action because educating the family about the importance of medication adherence can help them understand the patient's need for ongoing treatment. This approach promotes shared decision-making and empowers the family to support the patient's recovery. Choice A is incorrect because transferring the patient to a long-term care facility is premature and may not be necessary if the patient's condition improves with medication adherence. Choice B is incorrect as involving hospital security and forcibly removing the family is not an appropriate or therapeutic response to their concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as contacting the health care provider to meet with the family may not address the underlying issue of medication adherence and may not effectively educate the family about the importance of continued treatment.