ATI RN
Pediatric Research Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Many factors in nasopharyngeal carcinoma patients may affect the prognosis. Which of the following carries the worst outcome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of nasopharyngeal carcinoma prognosis, an elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level carries the worst outcome among the options provided. LDH is a marker of tissue damage and cell turnover, and elevated levels are associated with more aggressive disease and poorer prognosis in various cancers, including nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Option B, advanced disease, is a general term that does not specify a specific prognostic factor, whereas LDH level directly correlates with disease aggressiveness. Option C, extensive cervical lymph node involvement, is a common feature of nasopharyngeal carcinoma but may not necessarily indicate the worst prognosis. Option D, evidence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) DNA, is actually associated with a better prognosis as EBV positivity is linked to a more favorable response to treatment. In an educational context, understanding prognostic factors in pediatric oncology is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions regarding patient management and treatment strategies. Recognizing the significance of specific markers like LDH levels can guide clinicians in determining the appropriate interventions and predicting patient outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
You are evaluating a 6-mo-old girl with a firm right suprarenal mass. Histologically, there is no bony involvement, 10% bone marrow involvement, subcutaneous nodules involvement, and massive abdominal mass. The N-myc oncogene is not amplified. According to the international neuroblastoma staging system, the infant is stratified as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) stage IV S. The key to determining the correct stage lies in the extent of disease spread. Stage IV neuroblastoma is characterized by the presence of distant metastasis, which is evident in this case with the massive abdominal mass, subcutaneous nodules involvement, and bone marrow involvement. The absence of N-myc oncogene amplification is also a crucial factor in the staging process. Option A) stage I is incorrect because there is clear evidence of distant metastasis in this case. Option B) stage II A is incorrect as it does not encompass the extensive disease involvement seen in this patient. Option C) stage III is also incorrect as it does not reflect the presence of distant metastasis as seen in this case. From an educational perspective, understanding the international neuroblastoma staging system is crucial for healthcare providers involved in the care of pediatric oncology patients. It aids in determining prognosis, guiding treatment decisions, and facilitating communication among healthcare teams. This case underscores the importance of a comprehensive evaluation and knowledge of staging criteria in managing pediatric oncology cases effectively.
Question 3 of 5
Hepatoblastoma is a neoplasm of undifferentiated precursors of hepatocytes. It is of different histological classification; which type predict the MOST favorable outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric oncology, understanding the histological classification of tumors is crucial for treatment planning and prognostication. In the case of hepatoblastoma, the correct answer is B) type of pure epithelial histology, which predicts the most favorable outcome. This is because hepatoblastomas with pure epithelial histology have been associated with a better response to treatment and overall improved outcomes compared to other histological types. Pure epithelial tumors typically have a more differentiated cellular appearance, which may make them more responsive to chemotherapy and surgical interventions. Regarding the other options: A) Mixed type of pure epithelial and mesenchymal elements: This combination suggests a more complex tumor composition, which may indicate a less favorable prognosis due to the presence of mesenchymal elements. C) Type of mixed fetal and embryonal histology: This combination is associated with intermediate outcomes, not the most favorable as indicated in the question. D) Type of undifferentiated histology: Tumors with undifferentiated histology are typically more aggressive and associated with poorer prognosis compared to tumors with more differentiated features. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of histological classification in pediatric oncology and how different tumor subtypes can impact treatment strategies and patient outcomes. Understanding these nuances is essential for healthcare providers involved in the care of pediatric oncology patients.
Question 4 of 5
An adolescent patient, who has pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), inquires about the effects of the disease on their ability to bear children. What is the pediatric nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the best response for the pediatric nurse to provide to the adolescent patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is option B: "There is an increased risk for ectopic pregnancy or infertility." This answer is correct because PID can lead to serious complications, such as scarring of the fallopian tubes, which can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy (a pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus) and infertility. Option A, stating that the occurrence of spontaneous abortion during pregnancy increases with PID, is incorrect because while PID can lead to complications during pregnancy, such as preterm birth, it does not directly increase the risk of spontaneous abortion. Option C, mentioning an increased risk of placenta previa, is also incorrect as PID is not directly associated with this specific pregnancy complication. Option D, suggesting that there should be no problems with the patient's ability to conceive, is incorrect as PID can indeed impact fertility. Educationally, it is crucial for pediatric nurses to have a comprehensive understanding of the potential consequences of PID on reproductive health to provide accurate and supportive information to adolescent patients. By choosing the correct response, nurses can help patients make informed decisions about their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical care if needed.
Question 5 of 5
By the age of 7 months, the infant is able to do all the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is option D) cruises. Cruising typically occurs around 9-12 months of age, not at 7 months. Option A) transfer object from hand to hand is developmentally appropriate for a 7-month-old infant as they are beginning to explore objects and demonstrate basic fine motor skills. Option B) actively bouncing is also a skill that can be seen in infants around 7 months as they start to engage in more active play and movement. Option C) using radial palm grasp is a typical grasp pattern seen in infants around 7 months as they begin to grasp and manipulate objects using their whole hand. Understanding typical developmental milestones is crucial for healthcare providers working with infants and young children. By recognizing when certain skills are expected to emerge, healthcare professionals can identify potential developmental delays and provide appropriate interventions and support. It is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of pediatric development to ensure the well-being and optimal growth of children.