Many factors in nasopharyngeal carcinoma patients may affect the prognosis. Which of the following carries the worst outcome?

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Question 1 of 5

Many factors in nasopharyngeal carcinoma patients may affect the prognosis. Which of the following carries the worst outcome?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) patients, an elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level carries the worst outcome. LDH is a marker of tissue damage and its elevation indicates more aggressive disease and poorer prognosis in cancer patients. Elevated LDH levels are associated with increased tumor burden, metastasis, and overall disease progression in NPC. Advanced disease (option B) is a significant factor affecting prognosis in NPC, but it is not as specific or indicative of poor outcome as elevated LDH levels. Extensive cervical lymph node involvement (option C) is also a negative prognostic factor in NPC, but it is more related to disease stage rather than a direct marker of poor outcome. Evidence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) DNA (option D) is commonly seen in NPC patients but does not necessarily correlate with worse prognosis as much as elevated LDH levels. In an educational context, understanding the significance of different prognostic factors in NPC is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the care of these patients. Recognizing the impact of elevated LDH levels on prognosis can guide treatment decisions and help in optimizing patient outcomes. Students and practitioners need to be aware of the specific markers and factors that influence prognosis in NPC to provide comprehensive care to these patients.

Question 2 of 5

You are evaluating a 6-mo-old girl with a firm right suprarenal mass. Histologically, there is no bony involvement, 10% bone marrow involvement, subcutaneous nodules involvement, and massive abdominal mass. The N-myc oncogene is not amplified. According to the international neuroblastoma staging system, the infant is stratified as

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) stage IV S. This is because the scenario describes a 6-month-old girl with a neuroblastoma tumor that has already metastasized extensively, with involvement in the bone marrow, subcutaneous tissue, and a massive abdominal mass. The absence of N-myc amplification suggests a more favorable prognosis than if N-myc were amplified. Option A) stage I is incorrect because there is already metastasis present in this case. Option B) stage II A is also incorrect as the tumor has spread beyond the primary site. Option C) stage III is not the correct choice because of the extensive metastasis described in the scenario. Educationally, understanding the staging of neuroblastoma is crucial for pediatric practitioners as it guides treatment decisions and prognostication. This case highlights the importance of recognizing the extent of disease spread in neuroblastoma cases and how specific genetic markers can influence prognosis and treatment strategies. This knowledge is essential for providing optimal care to pediatric patients with neuroblastoma.

Question 3 of 5

Hepatoblastoma is a neoplasm of undifferentiated precursors of hepatocytes. It is of different histological classification; which type predict the MOST favorable outcome?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) type of pure epithelial histology because hepatoblastomas with pure epithelial histology have been associated with the most favorable outcomes compared to other histological types. Pure epithelial hepatoblastomas typically respond better to treatment and have a higher survival rate. Option A) mixed type of pure epithelial and mesenchymal elements is incorrect because the presence of mesenchymal elements can indicate a more aggressive tumor behavior. Option C) type of mixed fetal and embryonal histology and Option D) type of undifferentiated histology are also incorrect as they are associated with poorer prognoses and more aggressive disease progression. In an educational context, understanding the histological classification of hepatoblastoma is crucial for pediatric oncology practitioners to make informed treatment decisions and predict patient outcomes. This question highlights the importance of recognizing the different histological types and their implications for patient management and prognosis in pediatric oncology.

Question 4 of 5

An adolescent patient, who has pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), inquires about the effects of the disease on their ability to bear children. What is the pediatric nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) There is an increased risk for ectopic pregnancy or infertility. Pediatric nurses play a crucial role in educating patients about the potential consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) on their reproductive health. PID can lead to scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (a serious condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus) or infertility (difficulty conceiving). By choosing this option, the nurse addresses the patient's concerns accurately and provides important information for their future reproductive health decisions. Option A is incorrect because while PID can lead to complications during pregnancy, such as preterm birth, it does not specifically increase the occurrence of spontaneous abortion. Option C is incorrect as placenta previa is not directly associated with PID. Option D is incorrect as PID can indeed impact fertility and increase the risk of complications like ectopic pregnancy, making it an oversimplified and inaccurate response to the patient's inquiry. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of pediatric nurses being knowledgeable about the long-term effects of PID on adolescent patients' reproductive health. It emphasizes the need for clear and accurate communication with patients to empower them to make informed decisions about their healthcare and future fertility.

Question 5 of 5

By the age of 7 months, the infant is able to do all the following EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question focusing on infant developmental milestones, the correct answer is option D) cruises. Cruising typically occurs around 9-12 months of age, not at 7 months. At 7 months, infants are usually mastering skills such as transferring objects from hand to hand, using a radial palm grasp, and actively bouncing. Option A) transferring objects from hand to hand is a fine motor skill that infants develop around 6-7 months of age. This skill showcases their growing dexterity and hand-eye coordination. Option B) actively bouncing refers to the ability of infants to bounce while being held or when supported in a standing position. This skill is usually seen around 6-9 months and demonstrates their increasing strength and coordination. Option C) using a radial palm grasp is a grasping skill where the infant picks up objects using their whole hand and fingers. This grasp typically emerges around 6-7 months and is an important precursor to more refined pincer grasp. In an educational context, understanding typical developmental milestones in infants is crucial for educators, caregivers, and healthcare professionals. It helps in monitoring a child's progress, identifying any potential delays early on, and providing appropriate interventions or support when needed. By knowing what to expect at different ages, professionals can create enriching environments that support optimal development and learning for infants.

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