Mandatory retirement at age 65 years is consistent with which theory of aging?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disengagement theory. This theory suggests that as people age, they naturally withdraw or disengage from societal roles and responsibilities. Mandatory retirement at age 65 aligns with this theory as it reflects the societal expectation of older individuals stepping back from work roles. Role theory (A) focuses on how individuals adapt to various social roles throughout their lives, not specifically related to retirement. Age-stratification theory (C) emphasizes how age impacts societal structures and opportunities, not retirement policies. Social exchange theory (D) focuses on relationships and interactions based on the exchange of resources, not specifically related to retirement age policies.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: kidney stones. Intra-renal renal failure refers to damage within the kidney itself. Kidney stones mainly affect the urinary tract rather than directly causing damage within the kidney. A: certain aminoglycoside antibiotics can cause intra-renal renal failure by damaging the kidney tubules. B: glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidney, leading to intra-renal renal failure. D: diabetic or hypertensive nephrosclerosis can cause intra-renal renal failure due to long-term damage to the kidney's blood vessels and structures.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, EKG and serial enzymes for determination of an MI. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of nausea and sudden onset shortness of breath raise concern for a possible myocardial infarction (MI). Conducting an EKG and serial enzymes helps in diagnosing an MI by assessing for cardiac ischemia or injury. Upper endoscopy (choice A) is not indicated for these symptoms. A CT of the head (choice B) is unnecessary as the symptoms are suggestive of a cardiac issue, not a neurological one. Liver function studies (choice C) do not align with the presenting symptoms and are not a priority in this acute setting. Conducting an EKG and serial enzymes is the most appropriate initial workup to assess for a possible MI in this elderly patient with concerning symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because walking is a physical activity that promotes cardiovascular health, strength, and overall well-being. Regular exercise like walking 3-5 times per week for 30 minutes can help improve circulation, maintain healthy weight, and reduce the risk of chronic diseases. Cooking healthy meals (choice B) is important for nutrition but may not directly promote physical activity. Reading and knitting (choice C) are mentally stimulating but do not provide the physical benefits of exercise. Taking vitamins daily (choice D) is important for overall health but does not substitute for physical activity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because reviewing a menu with the older man allows for personalized food selection, taking into account his preferences and dietary restrictions. This approach promotes adherence to a healthy eating plan, leading to better cholesterol management and overall wellness. Choice A is not the best option as simply instructing him to increase dietary fiber may not address his specific dietary needs. Choice B suggests asking the health care provider for a low-fat diet, which may not consider the individual's food preferences or cultural background. Choice C of scheduling a consultation with a dietitian is a good option, but it may not be as immediately accessible or practical as reviewing a menu together with the individual.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delirium in older adults results from reversible metabolic changes, such as electrolyte imbalances. Delirium is a multifactorial condition often triggered by physiological imbalances, including electrolyte disturbances. These imbalances can disrupt normal brain function, leading to confusion and cognitive impairment. Other choices are incorrect: A is more typical of sepsis, C is more associated with conditions like dementia, and D is not a primary cause of delirium.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: peripheral arterial disease. Altered level of consciousness in an 81-year-old female is unlikely to be directly caused by peripheral arterial disease. Instead, hypoglycemia, pneumonia, and hypotension from dehydration are common causes of altered mental status in the elderly. Hypoglycemia can lead to brain dysfunction, pneumonia can cause low oxygen levels affecting brain function, and dehydration-induced hypotension can reduce blood flow to the brain. Therefore, peripheral arterial disease is not typically a direct cause of altered consciousness in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Infection. Older adults with diabetes are more vulnerable to infections due to weakened immune systems caused by high blood sugar levels. Infections can lead to severe complications and hospitalization. Stroke (A) is a common complication of diabetes but not the most common cause of hospitalization. Hypoglycemia (B) and diabetic ketoacidosis (C) are acute complications of diabetes but are less common causes of hospitalization compared to infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pneumonia. Older adults are more susceptible to pneumonia due to weakened immune systems and underlying health conditions. Pneumonia can lead to severe complications, requiring hospitalization. Osteoarthritis (A) primarily affects joints and does not typically lead to hospitalization. Stroke (B) and heart failure (D) are serious conditions but may not be as common for hospitalization as pneumonia in older adults. Pneumonia's impact on the respiratory system and its ability to progress rapidly make it the most common reason for hospitalization in this population.