ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Exam Preparation Questions
Question 1 of 5
Majority of innocent murmur timing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding innocent murmurs is crucial for accurate assessment and diagnosis. The majority of innocent murmurs occur during the ejection systolic phase. This is the correct answer (Option D) because innocent murmurs are often associated with turbulent blood flow through normal structures, such as the pulmonary and aortic valves, during systole. Option A, diastolic murmurs, are more commonly associated with pathological conditions like aortic regurgitation or mitral stenosis, rather than innocent murmurs in children. Option B, continuous murmurs, are typically heard in conditions like patent ductus arteriosus, not in innocent murmurs. Option C, pan-systolic murmurs, are often indicative of conditions like mitral regurgitation, not innocent murmurs in children. Educationally, understanding the timing of innocent murmurs helps nurses differentiate between benign and pathological murmurs in pediatric patients. By knowing that innocent murmurs are predominantly ejection systolic, nurses can provide better care and appropriate referrals for further evaluation when necessary. This knowledge is essential for pediatric nurses to ensure accurate assessment and management of young patients with heart murmurs.
Question 2 of 5
The most common cause of pleural effusion in children is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the etiology of pleural effusion is crucial for providing effective care to children. The correct answer is C) Infection. In children, pleural effusion is most commonly caused by infections such as pneumonia or tuberculosis. This is due to the inflammatory response triggered by the infection leading to fluid accumulation in the pleural space. Option A) Malignancy is less common in children compared to adults and is not a primary cause of pleural effusion in pediatric patients. Option B) Congestive heart failure may cause pleural effusion in adults, but it is rare in children. Option D) Hypoalbuminemia could lead to pleural effusion, but it is not as common a cause as infection in the pediatric population. Educationally, it is important for pediatric nurses to be aware of the primary causes of pleural effusion in children to guide assessment, diagnosis, and treatment effectively. Recognizing the association between infection and pleural effusion can help nurses prioritize interventions such as administering appropriate antibiotics and monitoring respiratory status closely in pediatric patients presenting with pleural effusion.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is a treatment option for aplastic anemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the treatment of aplastic anemia, a bone marrow transplantation (Option B) is the most effective option. Aplastic anemia is characterized by a deficiency of all types of blood cells caused by bone marrow failure. A bone marrow transplant can provide healthy stem cells to replace the dysfunctional ones, potentially curing the condition. This treatment option addresses the root cause of the disease and offers a chance for long-term remission. IVIG (Option A) is used in certain autoimmune conditions but is not a primary treatment for aplastic anemia. Splenectomy (Option C) is more commonly indicated for conditions like immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) but is not a standard treatment for aplastic anemia. Immune suppression (Option D) may be used in some cases of aplastic anemia, particularly if a bone marrow transplant is not feasible, but it is not the first-line treatment. Understanding the appropriate treatment for aplastic anemia is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children with this condition. Knowing the rationale behind each treatment option helps nurses make informed decisions and provide optimal care to their patients. It is important for nurses to recognize the significance of a bone marrow transplant in addressing the underlying cause of aplastic anemia and its potential to offer a cure or long-term remission for affected children.
Question 4 of 5
The most commonly affected part of the GIT by tuberculosis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Terminal part of small intestine. In tuberculosis, the most commonly affected part of the gastrointestinal tract (GIT) is the terminal part of the small intestine. This area is particularly vulnerable due to its rich blood supply, which aids in the dissemination of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria. The small intestine provides an ideal environment for the growth and spread of the bacteria, leading to characteristic lesions and ulcerations in this region. Option B) Terminal part of esophagus is incorrect because tuberculosis primarily affects the lower part of the GIT, particularly the small intestine, rather than the upper gastrointestinal tract like the esophagus. Option C) Terminal part of large intestine is incorrect as tuberculosis typically targets the small intestine rather than the large intestine. Option D) Pylorus is incorrect as tuberculosis does not commonly affect this part of the GIT. Understanding the specific areas of the GIT commonly affected by tuberculosis is crucial in pediatric nursing practice. Knowledge of these clinical manifestations helps in early identification, appropriate treatment, and prevention of complications associated with gastrointestinal tuberculosis in pediatric patients.
Question 5 of 5
A 5-year-old girl was brought to the ED with altered mental status. Kernig and Brudzinski signs were present. CSF shows: WBCs 1500/ul (80% neutrophils), Sugar 20 mg/dl, Protein 400 mg/dl, Positive Gram stain. You would interpret the CSF as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the CSF findings in this scenario is B) Bacterial Meningitis. This conclusion is reached based on several key indicators present in the CSF analysis: notably, the significantly elevated white blood cell count (1500/ul, 80% neutrophils), low glucose level (20 mg/dl), high protein level (400 mg/dl), and a positive Gram stain. In bacterial meningitis, the CSF typically shows a high white blood cell count with predominantly neutrophils, low glucose due to bacterial consumption, high protein due to increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier, and a positive Gram stain indicating the presence of bacteria. These findings align with the case presented and support the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The other options can be ruled out based on the specific characteristics of the CSF findings in each condition. Viral encephalitis would typically show a lymphocytic pleocytosis in the CSF, normal or slightly low glucose levels, and a negative Gram stain. TB Meningitis would usually present with a lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose, high protein, and acid-fast bacilli seen on staining, which contrasts with the neutrophilic pleocytosis and positive Gram stain in this case. Understanding how to interpret CSF findings in pediatric patients is crucial for nurses working in emergency departments to promptly identify and initiate appropriate treatment for serious conditions like bacterial meningitis. This knowledge can help improve patient outcomes by ensuring timely interventions and preventing complications associated with central nervous system infections.