Maintaining the infusion rate of hyperalimentation solutions is a nursing responsibility. What side effects would you anticipate from too rapid infusion rate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rapid infusion of hyperalimentation solutions can lead to circulatory overload due to increased fluid volume in the circulatory system. 2. Circulatory overload can result in symptoms such as hypertension, tachycardia, and edema. 3. Hypoglycemia can occur as a result of excess insulin release due to the sudden increase in glucose from the hyperalimentation solution. Summary: A. Cellular dehydration and potassium: Incorrect. Rapid infusion would lead to fluid overload, not dehydration. B. Hypoglycemia and hypovolemia: Incorrect. Hypovolemia is unlikely with rapid infusion, and hypoglycemia is a possible side effect. C. Potassium excess and CHF: Incorrect. Rapid infusion may cause circulatory overload, not CHF, and potassium excess is not a common side effect. D. Circulatory overload and hypoglycemia: Correct. These are the most likely side effects of rapid

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps to manage these side effects and improve the patient's comfort and compliance with treatment. Antibiotics (choice B) are used to treat bacterial infections and are not directly related to combating chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (choice C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (choice D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Hypernatremia is defined by elevated serum sodium levels (>145mEq/L). Step 2: Serum osmolality of 245mOsm/kg is high, consistent with hypernatremia. Step 3: Urine specific gravity below 1.003 indicates dilute urine, a common finding in hypernatremia. Step 4: The combination of elevated serum sodium, high serum osmolality, and low urine specific gravity confirms hypernatremia. Summary: A: Incorrect, as high serum osmolality (not 245mOsm/kg) is associated with hypernatremia. B: Incorrect, as low urine specific gravity (not below 1.003) is seen in hypernatremia. C: Incorrect, as serum sodium needs to be >145mEq/L to indicate hypernatremia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (30 seconds) because the maximum recommended time for suctioning a patient is typically around 10-15 seconds for each pass. Prolonged suctioning can lead to tissue damage, hypoxia, and increased risk of infection. In this case, given the patient's symptoms and medical history (vomiting, weight loss, dehydration, hypotension), it is crucial to limit suction time to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they exceed the safe duration for suctioning and increase the risk of harm to the patient. Choice D, in particular, is significantly longer than the recommended time and could pose serious risks to the patient's health in this situation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer): 1. Multiple sclerosis (MS) commonly affects the optic nerve and chiasm. 2. MS is characterized by demyelination of nerves, leading to visual disturbances. 3. Optic nerve involvement results in vision problems, such as blurred vision. 4. Chiasm involvement can cause visual field deficits and color perception changes. Summary of Other Choices: A: Lateral, 3rd, and 4th ventricles - Incorrect. MS primarily affects the central nervous system, not ventricles. B: Pons, medulla, and cerebral peduncles - Incorrect. While these areas are part of the brainstem, they are not commonly affected in MS. D: Above areas - Incorrect. This choice is vague and does not specify any specific areas affected by MS.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In the scenario, the nurse failed to assess the patient's condition promptly after the patient complained of feeling dizzy and light-headed. Assessment is the first phase of the nursing process and involves collecting data to identify the patient's health status. By not reassessing the patient's vital signs and symptoms, the nurse missed an opportunity to detect the worsening condition. The other choices are incorrect because the error occurred before diagnosis (B), implementation (C), and evaluation (D) phases. In diagnosis, the nurse identifies the patient's problems; in implementation, the nurse carries out the care plan; and in evaluation, the nurse assesses the effectiveness of interventions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Level of consciousness is the most reliable index of cerebral state because it directly reflects the functioning of the brain. Changes in consciousness can indicate alterations in cerebral perfusion and potential increases in intracranial pressure. Step 2: Unilateral papillary dilatation may suggest an increase in intracranial pressure, but it is not as reliable as level of consciousness in assessing overall cerebral state. Step 3: Increased systolic blood pressure can occur due to various reasons and may not specifically indicate changes in intracranial pressure. Step 4: Decreased pulse pressure may be related to factors such as hypovolemia or cardiac conditions, but it is not a direct indicator of cerebral state or intracranial pressure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In this scenario, the nurse failed to complete a thorough assessment by not informing the nurse about the patient's condition. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process where data is collected and analyzed to identify the patient's problems. By not communicating the patient's symptoms to the nurse, the nurse missed crucial information that could have led to timely intervention. Explanation of other choices: B: Diagnosis - The nurse did not have the opportunity to make a diagnosis because the assessment phase was incomplete. C: Implementation - The nurse did not reach the implementation phase yet as the assessment phase was not properly conducted. D: Evaluation - The nurse cannot evaluate the effectiveness of interventions as the assessment and subsequent phases were not properly carried out.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to reflect on the potential causes of their fatigue, leading to a more detailed and insightful response. This open-ended question allows the patient to explore various factors contributing to their fatigue, such as lifestyle habits, medical conditions, or emotional stressors. Choice A focuses on stress, which may not be the primary cause of fatigue for the patient. Choice C is too specific and may not uncover other relevant information. Choice D assumes that sleep duration is the sole factor contributing to fatigue, neglecting other possible causes. Overall, choice B facilitates a more comprehensive discussion and helps the nurse gather valuable information to address the patient's concerns effectively.