ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Maintaining the infusion rate of hyperalimentation solutions is a nursing responsibility. What side effects would you anticipate from too rapid infusion rate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rapid infusion of hyperalimentation solutions can lead to circulatory overload due to increased fluid volume in the circulatory system. 2. Circulatory overload can result in symptoms such as hypertension, tachycardia, and edema. 3. Hypoglycemia can occur as a result of excess insulin release due to the sudden increase in glucose from the hyperalimentation solution. Summary: A. Cellular dehydration and potassium: Incorrect. Rapid infusion would lead to fluid overload, not dehydration. B. Hypoglycemia and hypovolemia: Incorrect. Hypovolemia is unlikely with rapid infusion, and hypoglycemia is a possible side effect. C. Potassium excess and CHF: Incorrect. Rapid infusion may cause circulatory overload, not CHF, and potassium excess is not a common side effect. D. Circulatory overload and hypoglycemia: Correct. These are the most likely side effects of rapid
Question 2 of 9
An adult suffered a diving accident and is being brought in by an ambulance intubated and on backboard with a cervical collar. What is the first action the nurse would take on arrival in the hospital?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Upon arrival, checking the lungs for equal breath sounds bilaterally is the first action. This is crucial to assess airway patency and breathing effectiveness in a patient with a history of diving accident and intubation. Ensuring proper oxygenation takes precedence over other actions. Taking vital signs, inserting an IV line, and performing a neurologic check can wait until airway and breathing are adequately assessed.
Question 3 of 9
Why must clients who will undergo diagnostic skin test avoid taking antihistamine or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hrs before testing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antihistamines can suppress the immune response that the skin test is designed to detect, leading to false negative results. By inhibiting the body's allergic response, antihistamines can mask the presence of an allergy, giving the false impression that the individual is not allergic to a particular substance. This can lead to misdiagnosis and improper treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because antihistamines do not affect bleeding, aggravate allergic reactions, or cause wheezing in the context of a skin test.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is assigned to a client with polymyositis. Which expected outcome in the plan of care relates to a potential problem associated with polymyositis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Polymyositis can affect muscles involved in swallowing, leading to aspiration risk. Therefore, it's crucial for the client to exhibit no signs or symptoms of aspiration. Choice A is unrelated to polymyositis. Choice C involves issues with muscle weakness rather than aspiration risk. Choice D relates to cognitive function, not a common issue with polymyositis.
Question 5 of 9
During the physical assessment, the nurse recalls that the areas most frequently affected by multiple sclerosis are the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer): 1. Multiple sclerosis (MS) commonly affects the optic nerve and chiasm. 2. MS is characterized by demyelination of nerves, leading to visual disturbances. 3. Optic nerve involvement results in vision problems, such as blurred vision. 4. Chiasm involvement can cause visual field deficits and color perception changes. Summary of Other Choices: A: Lateral, 3rd, and 4th ventricles - Incorrect. MS primarily affects the central nervous system, not ventricles. B: Pons, medulla, and cerebral peduncles - Incorrect. While these areas are part of the brainstem, they are not commonly affected in MS. D: Above areas - Incorrect. This choice is vague and does not specify any specific areas affected by MS.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive. To prevent the spread of the HIV virus, what do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Universal blood and body fluid precautions. This is recommended by the CDC to prevent the spread of HIV because the virus can be present in blood and certain body fluids. Universal precautions involve treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious. Incorrect choices: B: Body systems isolation - This is not specific to preventing the spread of HIV and is not recommended by the CDC. C: Laminar flow room during active infection - This is not a standard recommendation for preventing the spread of HIV. D: Needle and syringe precautions - While important in preventing needlestick injuries, it is not the primary method recommended by the CDC for preventing the spread of HIV.
Question 7 of 9
For a client with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, the physician prescribes the corticosteroid prednisone (Deltasone). When caring for this client, the nurse should monitor for which adverse drug reactions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adverse reactions such as increased weight due to fluid retention, hypertension due to sodium retention, and insomnia due to its stimulating effects. Vaginal bleeding, jaundice, inflammation, stupor, breast lumps, pain, dyspnea, numbness, and headache are not commonly associated with prednisone use. Monitoring for weight changes, blood pressure, and sleep patterns is essential when administering prednisone to a client with rheumatoid arthritis for early detection and management of adverse reactions.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff. is a normal hemoglobin value?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 12 to 18 g/100mL. Normal hemoglobin values typically range from 12 to 18 g/100mL in adults. This range reflects the normal concentration of hemoglobin in the blood and is commonly used as a reference range in clinical practice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fall within the typical normal range for hemoglobin levels. Choice A (38% to 48%) is a percentage range, not a direct measurement of hemoglobin concentration. Choice B (48 to 54 mg%) and Choice D (27 to 36 g/dL) are outside the normal range for hemoglobin levels in adults. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice among the options provided is C (12 to 18 g/100mL) based on standard reference values for hemoglobin concentration in the blood.
Question 9 of 9
A client is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s laboratory report and notes that he has thrombocytopenia. To which nursing diagnosis should the nurse give the highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI. Thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count, which can lead to impaired blood clotting and potential bleeding. Ineffective tissue perfusion is the most critical concern as it can lead to life-threatening complications like hemorrhage. Activity intolerance, impaired tissue integrity, and impaired oral mucous membranes are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the risk of hemorrhage from thrombocytopenia.