ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Lytic life cycle of phages does not include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: germination. In the lytic life cycle of phages, germination is not a stage. The lytic cycle involves adsorption, penetration, replication, assembly, and lysis. Germination is typically associated with the lysogenic cycle, where the phage DNA integrates into the host genome. Therefore, A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are all stages of the lytic cycle. Penetration refers to the injection of phage DNA into the host cell, adsorption is the attachment of the phage to the host cell, and lysis is the final stage where the host cell bursts, releasing new phages.
Question 2 of 9
While studying a microslide obtained from the punctuate of a regional lymph node and stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method a physician revealed some light pink thin microorganisms with 12-14 regular spiral coils and pointed ends, up to 10-13 micrometer long. This might be the causative agent of the following disease:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Relapsing fever. The description matches Borrelia species, the causative agent of relapsing fever. The thin, spiral-shaped microorganisms with pointed ends and specific length are characteristic of Borrelia. The number of coils and size mentioned also align with Borrelia morphology. Relapsing fever is transmitted by tick bites and manifests as recurring febrile episodes. Incorrect choices: A: Syphilis - Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, which is not spiral-shaped. B: Trypanosomiasis - Trypanosomiasis is caused by Trypanosoma species, which are not spiral-shaped. C: Leptospirosis - Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira species, which are not spiral-shaped and do not match the specific description provided.
Question 3 of 9
How the prepared immunofluorescence slide should be examined?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because immunofluorescence slides are examined under a fluorescence microscope with a x100 oil immersion objective. This is because immunofluorescence relies on the detection of fluorescently labeled antibodies, which emit light when excited by a specific wavelength. Using a fluorescence microscope allows for visualization of these labeled antibodies at high magnification and resolution, enabling precise examination of cellular structures and protein localization. Choice B is incorrect as light microscopes are not suitable for visualizing fluorescence. Choice C is incorrect as electron microscopes use electrons, not light, for imaging, which is not compatible with immunofluorescence. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific method for examining immunofluorescence slides.
Question 4 of 9
Examination of the duodenal contents revealed some pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei and four pairs of flagella. The organisms had also two axostyles between the nuclei and a ventral adhesive disc. What protozoan representative was found in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, two axostyles, and a ventral adhesive disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. Step 2: Giardia lamblia is commonly found in the duodenum and causes giardiasis. Step 3: Lamblia is the correct answer as it specifically matches all the described characteristics. Summary: B, Toxoplasma, is incorrect as it does not match the described features. C, Leishmania, does not have the specific characteristics mentioned. D, Intestinal trichomonad, does not match the detailed descriptions given.
Question 5 of 9
A male patient has been diagnosed with gastric ulcer. Bacteriological examination of biopsy material from the affected part of stomach revealed small colonies of gram-negative, oxide reductase-positive flexibacteria that grew on the chocolate agar on the fifth day. Which of the following microorganisms is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent of gastric ulcers. Here's the rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is commonly associated with gastric ulcers. 2. It is a gram-negative bacterium that grows on chocolate agar and is oxide reductase-positive. 3. The slow growth on the fifth day is characteristic of H. pylori. 4. Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter fetus are not typically associated with gastric ulcers. 5. Mycoplasma hominis is a bacterium that lacks a cell wall and is not commonly found in gastric ulcers.
Question 6 of 9
Langerhans cells, which play a role in defense against microbes, are located in the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: epidermis. Langerhans cells are a type of immune cell found in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. They play a crucial role in the defense against microbes by capturing and presenting antigens to activate the immune system. The dermis (B), hypodermis (C), and subcutaneous layer (D) are located deeper in the skin and do not contain Langerhans cells. Therefore, the epidermis is the correct location for these immune cells to carry out their defensive functions.
Question 7 of 9
Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this scenario, the antibotulinic serum of types A, B, and E were introduced to neutralize the botulinum toxin in the test specimen. The serological reaction applied here involves the neutralization of the toxin by the specific antibodies present in the serum. This process prevents the toxin from causing harm to the mice. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - This involves the formation of insoluble complexes between antigen and antibody, not the specific neutralization seen in this case. C: Complement binding - This involves activation of the complement system leading to cell lysis, not the direct neutralization of toxin. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to determine the presence of specific antibodies or antigens based on their diffusion patterns, not the neutralization of toxin as seen in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.
Question 9 of 9
A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive rods with terminal spores suggest Clostridium genus. 2. Terminal spores are characteristic of Clostridium perfringens. 3. C. perfringens is known to cause wound infections. 4. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Clostridium perfringens. Summary: A: Clostridium perfringens is correct due to its characteristic features and association with wound infections. B: Bacillus anthracis does not typically form terminal spores. C: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not wound infections. D: Bacillus cereus does not produce terminal spores like Clostridium perfringens.