ATI RN
Infertility NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. She mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms of abdominal bloating, nausea, and rapid weight gain indicate fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity, a hallmark of OHSS. This occurs due to enlarged ovaries releasing excessive fluid into the abdomen. It is important to monitor patients like Lori closely for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications. Incorrect choices: A: Ovulation - Symptoms described are not typical of normal ovulation. B: Premenstrual syndrome - Symptoms are not consistent with typical PMS symptoms. D: Failed ovulation induction - Symptoms of weight gain and bloating are not indicative of failed ovulation induction but rather a complication of the treatment.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse provides teaching for a patient scheduled for genetic testing. What should the nurse do to help the patient understand what is being taught?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because asking the patient to verbalize what was learned promotes active learning and helps assess the patient's understanding. It allows the nurse to clarify any misconceptions and reinforce important information. Choice A may be helpful but not sufficient. Choice B is important but may not fully address comprehension. Choice C focuses on communication style rather than assessing understanding.
Question 3 of 5
A newly married woman states, "My friend told me I would never have a baby because I had pelvic inflammatory disease when I was younger. I don't understand how that can affect whether or not I get pregnant." The nurse's most appropriate response is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes. This can prevent the fertilized egg from traveling to the uterus for implantation, thus affecting fertility. Choice A is incorrect as it makes a definitive statement without considering individual variations in the impact of PID. Choice B is incorrect because while PID can lead to ovarian damage, it primarily affects the fallopian tubes. Choice C is incorrect as fallopian tube damage can result from various infections, not just gonorrhea. Thus, the most appropriate response is D, as it directly addresses how PID can impact fertility through fallopian tube obstruction.
Question 4 of 5
What is the primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing is to evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial in assessing male fertility potential. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm, motility refers to their ability to move effectively, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact the likelihood of successful fertilization. Checking for infections (choice A) is important but not the primary purpose. Hormonal imbalances (choice C) are typically evaluated through blood tests, not semen analysis. Testing for genetic abnormalities in sperm (choice D) is a separate test and not the primary focus of a semen analysis.
Question 5 of 5
A client is in the third stage of labor. Which finding would alert the nurse that the placenta is separating?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.