ATI RN
Infertility Quiz Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. Lori mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Lori is taking clomiphene citrate which can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). 2. Symptoms like abdominal bloating, weight gain, and nausea are characteristic of OHSS. 3. OHSS typically occurs after ovulation induction medications like clomiphene citrate. 4. Therefore, Lori's symptoms indicate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. Summary: A. Ovulation is incorrect as the symptoms suggest a complication of ovulation induction, not ovulation itself. B. Premenstrual syndrome does not explain the acute symptoms and weight gain. D. Failed ovulation induction is incorrect as the symptoms are not indicative of failed ovulation but rather an adverse reaction to the medication.
Question 2 of 5
A patient undergoing IUI asks why sperm washing is performed. What is the nurse's explanation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sperm washing in IUI concentrates healthy sperm, removing debris and non-motile sperm, increasing the chance of fertilization. Choice B is incorrect as sperm washing is not specifically for IVF. Choice C is incorrect, as genetic abnormalities are not directly related to sperm washing. Choice D is incorrect, as sperm washing does not affect ovulation timing.
Question 3 of 5
A 4-month-old infant has been diagnosed with a rare genetic disease called neonatal onset multisystem inflammatory disease (NOMID). This disease occurs through an autosomal-dominant inheritance pattern. The parents ask the nurse, 'Which of us passed this disease on to our child?' Which of the following is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Either the mother or the father can carry the gene. In an autosomal-dominant inheritance pattern, only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to express the disease. This means that either parent can pass on the disease gene to the child. Therefore, it is not necessary for both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease. Choices A and B are incorrect because autosomal-dominant diseases do not depend on the gender of the parent carrying the gene. Choice D is incorrect as it implies that both parents must be carriers, which is not a requirement for autosomal-dominant inheritance.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is being interviewed by the nurse. During the family history assessment, the patient reports having had relatives with cancer. Which is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Completing a pedigree allows for a visual representation of the family's health history. 2. Noting the types of cancer and affected relatives helps identify patterns and potential genetic risks. 3. This response demonstrates a proactive approach to understanding the patient's genetic predispositions. Summary of other choices: B: Asking about the gender of affected relatives does not provide as much detailed information about the types of cancer or specific family members affected. C: Determining relevance to personal history is important, but a pedigree provides a broader picture for risk assessment. D: Referring to a genetic counselor may be necessary but completing a pedigree first helps gather essential information for a more informed consultation.
Question 5 of 5
Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Large amounts of leukocytes in seminal fluid indicate an infection of the genital tract. Leukocytes are white blood cells that are typically present in response to an infection. In this context, their presence suggests an ongoing inflammatory response to combat the infection. This finding is consistent with an infection in the genital tract, which could be caused by various pathogens. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choice A (inadequate fructose) is incorrect because leukocytes are not directly related to fructose levels in the seminal fluid. Choice B (inflammation of the testes) is incorrect as the presence of leukocytes in seminal fluid does not necessarily indicate testicular inflammation. Choice D (obstruction in the vas deferens) is also incorrect as leukocytes are not typically associated with vas deferens obstruction.