ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Ensure that personnel are utilized in their designated roles'?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Accountability'. Accountability in personnel management ensures that individuals are utilized in their designated roles, such as ensuring that soldiers are utilized in their Military Occupational Specialty (MOS). This category focuses on ensuring that personnel are assigned and performing their duties as required. The other choices, personal/professional development, individual training, and military appearance/physical condition, do not directly relate to the specific task of ensuring individuals are utilized in their designated roles.
Question 2 of 9
Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patients with chronic alcoholism are most likely to develop a deficiency in Vitamin B1 (thiamine) due to poor dietary intake and impaired absorption. This deficiency can lead to conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's syndrome. While deficiencies in other vitamins can also occur in chronic alcoholism, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with this condition, making it the most likely nutrient deficiency in these patients. Therefore, the correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Choice D). Deficiencies in Vitamin C (Choice A), Vitamin D (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice C) can also be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism, but they are not as commonly linked to this condition compared to Vitamin B1 deficiency.
Question 3 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following describes a process of heat loss involving the transfer of heat from one surface to another?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Conduction is the process of heat transfer that occurs between objects or substances that are in direct contact with each other. In this process, heat is transferred from a hotter surface to a cooler surface through direct contact. This type of heat transfer does not involve the movement of the substances themselves, only the transfer of thermal energy. Choice A, Radiation, is the transfer of heat in the form of electromagnetic waves and does not require a medium. Choice C, Convection, involves the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases) due to density differences. Choice D, Evaporation, is a cooling process that involves the transformation of a liquid into a gas, absorbing heat in the process.
Question 5 of 9
A client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider ordering?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. A chest tube may be needed if a pancreatic pseudocyst ruptures into the pleural space, causing a pleural effusion. Paracentesis (choice A) involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically indicated for a pancreatic pseudocyst. Lumbar puncture (choice C) is a procedure to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant to a pancreatic pseudocyst. Biopsy of the pancreas (choice D) is a diagnostic procedure to obtain tissue samples for examination and is not typically done in the context of a ruptured pseudocyst.
Question 6 of 9
What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred between ground and air ambulances. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) refer to medical units that provide medical support to large areas and are not specifically related to evacuation. TOE units (Choice B) and field hospitals (Choice D) are not typically established in response to threats to air resources affecting evacuation.
Question 7 of 9
What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and preserve its combat effectiveness.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure that military personnel remain healthy and fit for duty to preserve the Army's fighting strength. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department, which is focused on the health and readiness of the military forces, rather than performing annual physical examinations, responding to disasters, or providing education and training.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client's questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.
Question 9 of 9
An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.