Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes

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Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this case, the best approach to the patient includes assessment of nonprostate causes of nocturia. Despite the lack of significant prostate hypertrophy on digital rectal examination, the patient is experiencing bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms such as nocturia, urinary urgency, and post-void dribbling. These symptoms suggest the need to consider alternative causes beyond prostate enlargement. Factors such as overactive bladder, urinary tract infections, diabetes, sleep apnea, medications, or other systemic conditions could be contributing to the patient's symptoms. Therefore, a comprehensive evaluation to identify potential nonprostate causes of the patient's nocturia is warranted before considering more invasive prostate-specific tests like PSA, ultrasound, or symptom scales.

Question 2 of 5

Diabetes in pregnancy predisposes a mother to developing vulvo-vaginitis due to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Diabetes in pregnancy alters vaginal pH, promoting Candida albicans growth.

Question 3 of 5

Mr. Novello is an 81-year old male patient who presents with crampy abdominal pain in the hypogastrum and a vague history as to his last normal bowel movement. Physical examination reveals distention and high-pitched bowel sounds. The patient says he has never has this kind of problem before and denies any history of abdominal surgery. Abdominal radiographs reveal a frame pattern of colonic distention. The AGACNP considers

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate step for the AGACNP to take in this scenario is to decompress the colon with a rectal tube. The patient's presentation, including crampy abdominal pain, distention, lack of bowel movements, and a frame pattern of colonic distention on radiographs, are suggestive of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, also known as Ogilvie's syndrome. This condition is characterized by colonic distention without a mechanical obstruction, which can lead to significant complications such as perforation.

Question 4 of 5

How can maternal nutrition affect fetal development?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Maternal nutrition supports fetal growth, prevents birth defects, and reduces preterm birth risks.

Question 5 of 5

The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patients mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows BP 8854 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93 on a 50 mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes seccm5 Cardiac index 1.3 Lmin Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with low blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea, decreased oxygen saturation, and altered mental status is most consistent with distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by systemic vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR), leading to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs despite normal or high cardiac output. In this case, the low SVR (1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5) and low blood pressure indicate vasodilation. The patient's pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) of 8 mm Hg is not consistent with cardiogenic shock, where elevated PCWP would be expected. Additionally, there are no signs of obstructive shock, such as a history of pulmonary embolism but rather clinical findings that suggest distributive shock. Hypovolemic shock would typically present with signs of volume depletion and would be less likely in this patient with stable mental status initially.

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