ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessment of nonprostate causes of nocturia. In this case, the patient's symptoms of nocturia, urinary urgency, and post-void dribbling are not indicative of prostate enlargement. Given that the digital rectal examination revealed a normal-sized prostate with no hypertrophy, it is essential to explore other potential causes of nocturia in this patient. By assessing non-prostate causes of nocturia, such as diabetes, urinary tract infection, medication side effects, or sleep disorders, a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan can be developed. This approach will lead to better patient outcomes compared to focusing solely on prostate-related evaluations. Option A: Administration of the AUA Symptom Scale is not the best approach in this case because the patient's symptoms are not primarily related to prostate enlargement. Option B: Laboratory assessment to include a PSA is not necessary since the digital rectal examination already indicated a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. Option C: Ordering a
Question 2 of 5
Complications of occipito-posterior position:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because occipito-posterior position can lead to prolonged labor due to poor fetal positioning, causing maternal back pain. This can result in fetal distress as the baby may have difficulty descending through the birth canal. Postpartum hemorrhage, uterine rupture, fetal death (choices B and C) are not typically associated with occipito-posterior position. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer.
Question 3 of 5
Vaginal delivery is possible in
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the baby's head is extended, allowing for descent through the birth canal. Brow presentation (A) and shoulder presentation (C) may require cesarean delivery due to the atypical presentation of the baby. Unstable lie (D) refers to the baby being in a transverse position, which also necessitates a cesarean section. Face presentation is the only option where vaginal delivery may be possible due to the extended position of the baby's head.
Question 4 of 5
In mild preeclampsia, the mother has no complaints.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and swelling. This contradicts the statement that the mother has no complaints. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately states that the mother has no complaints. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any relevant information to address the question.
Question 5 of 5
The relationship between abdominal pain and vomiting typically can be characterized by saying
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The presence of bile in vomitus suggests that the vomit originated from the small intestine or stomach, indicating an obstruction in the pyloric region. Step 2: Pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the small intestine, leading to projectile vomiting with bile. Step 3: Therefore, the presence of bile in vomitus suggests pyloric stenosis, making option D the correct answer. Summary: Option A is incorrect because vomiting preceding pain does not necessarily indicate a surgical abdomen. Option B is incorrect as the severity of symptoms is not solely based on age. Option C is incorrect as some surgical abdomens can present with vomiting as a primary symptom.
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