ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Laryngeal stridor as a congenital abnormality is caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Laryngeal stridor is caused by laryngomalacia, where the soft tissue above the vocal cords collapses inward.
Question 2 of 5
Post-partum haemorrhage is likely to lead to acute renal failure due to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypovolaemia from excessive bleeding can lead to renal failure.
Question 3 of 5
R. R. is a 61-year-old male patient who presents with a chief complaint of fever and urinary symptoms. He was in his usual state of good health when for no apparent reason he developed pain in his back and perineal region, as well as fever and chills. He presents as septic. He had urinary hesitancy and decreased stream but now reports that he has not passed urine in more than 12 hours. Palpation of the lower abdomen is consistent with bladder distention. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is contraindicated in this circumstance?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with suspected prostatic abscess and urinary retention, urinary catheterization is contraindicated due to the risk of spreading infection and causing potential complications such as septicemia or worsening of the abscess. The introduction of a catheter can disrupt the abscess capsule, leading to dissemination of the infection. Therefore, other methods of decompression and treatment should be considered, such as drainage of the abscess or other appropriate interventions guided by a healthcare provider.
Question 4 of 5
How does maternal hypertension affect fetal development?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Maternal hypertension can restrict fetal growth, increase preterm birth risk, and lead to stillbirth.
Question 5 of 5
Mr. Novello is an 81-year old male patient who presents with crampy abdominal pain in the hypogastrum and a vague history as to his last normal bowel movement. Physical examination reveals distention and high-pitched bowel sounds. The patient says he has never has this kind of problem before and denies any history of abdominal surgery. Abdominal radiographs reveal a frame pattern of colonic distention. The AGACNP considers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate step for the AGACNP to take in this scenario is to decompress the colon with a rectal tube. The patient's presentation, including crampy abdominal pain, distention, lack of bowel movements, and a frame pattern of colonic distention on radiographs, are suggestive of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, also known as Ogilvie's syndrome. This condition is characterized by colonic distention without a mechanical obstruction, which can lead to significant complications such as perforation.