Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Laboratory studies indicate a client’s blood pressure level is 185mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most occlusive diagnostic information about the client’s glucose utilization?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A 6-hour glucose tolerance test. This test involves measuring blood glucose levels at specific intervals after consuming a glucose solution, providing a comprehensive assessment of glucose utilization over time. This test is particularly useful in evaluating how the body processes glucose after a meal and can help diagnose conditions such as diabetes. A: A fasting blood glucose test would not provide a comprehensive picture of glucose utilization over time since it only measures glucose levels in a fasted state. B: A test of serum glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months but does not directly assess glucose utilization after a meal. D: A test for urine ketones is used to detect ketones in the urine, which can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis but does not directly measure glucose utilization.

Question 2 of 5

A post-TURP patient experiences dribbling following removal of his catheter. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.

Question 3 of 5

At the present time, the best treatment for cancer is complete __________ before metastasis occurs:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical removal. Surgical removal of the cancerous tumor is the best treatment before metastasis because it physically removes the cancer cells. Chemotherapy and radiation are used to treat cancer after it has spread, not as the primary treatment. Choice D is incorrect because not all types of cancer can be effectively treated with all three options.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the ff should the nurse identify as the earliest symptom of heart failure in many older clients?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea on exertion. In older clients, dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of heart failure due to decreased cardiac reserve. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's demands during physical activity. Increased urine output (A) is not typically an early symptom of heart failure. Swollen joints (C) are more indicative of arthritis or inflammation, not necessarily heart failure. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typical early symptoms of heart failure and are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is documenting the progress of a client who has been recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in the evaluation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it directly reflects the client's progress in physical activity, a key indicator of recovery post-myocardial infarction. Walking 500 meters without chest pain shows improved cardiovascular function and exercise tolerance. Vital signs and lab results from admission (A) are important for initial assessment but not for ongoing evaluation. Physician notes (C) may provide insights but do not directly measure the client's progress. Medications prescribed (D) are important but do not reflect the client's specific improvement in physical activity.

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