ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Korino has been using meperidine and codeine for personal consumption. Which of the following does the nurse understand as the physiologic effect of these drugs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieves pain by increasing pain threshold. Meperidine and codeine are opioid analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, thus increasing the pain threshold and reducing the perception of pain. This leads to pain relief without necessarily affecting sexual stimulation (choice A), craving for alcohol (choice C), or concentration/alertness (choice D). The primary physiological effect of these drugs is to modulate the perception of pain, making choice B the most appropriate answer in this context.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Sarah reads the physician's prescription to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergin) intramuscularly after delivery. The rationale for giving this medication is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prevents postpartum hemorrhage. Methylergonovine maleate is a uterotonic medication used to prevent and treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing strong uterine contractions, which help to control bleeding after delivery. It is not used to reduce lochia drainage (choice A), decrease uterine contractions (choice C), or maintain normal blood pressure (choice D). By understanding the pharmacological action of methylergonovine maleate in preventing postpartum hemorrhage, we can confidently select choice B as the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash following a linear pattern on the left forearm. The patient reports a history of gardening without gloves. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpes simplex virus infection. The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash following a linear pattern on the left forearm is characteristic of herpes simplex virus infection, specifically herpes zoster (shingles). The linear pattern is due to the virus following a specific nerve pathway. This is different from the other choices - A: Allergic contact dermatitis typically presents as a diffuse rash at the site of contact with an allergen, not a linear pattern. C: Scabies presents with burrows and papules, not vesicles in a linear pattern. D: Poison ivy dermatitis causes a diffuse rash, not a linear vesicular rash.
Question 5 of 9
When patient record reach the Medical Records, the assigned staff will _____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking the completeness of the charting by doctors and nurses ensures that all necessary information is accurately documented, facilitating proper patient care and treatment. This step helps identify any missing or incorrect information that may impact patient safety. A: Storing the charts in respective shelves is a routine task that does not involve verifying the accuracy or completeness of the information. B: Separating medico-legal charts is important but does not directly address the completeness of charting by doctors and nurses. D: Binding the charts immediately is not necessary before ensuring the completeness and accuracy of the information documented.
Question 6 of 9
To achieve organized work flow in the unit the staff must be aware of the head nurse's role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and delegation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. Supervision and delegation are essential in ensuring efficient and effective healthcare delivery. By supervising and delegating tasks appropriately, the head nurse can ensure that staff members are performing their duties competently, which ultimately leads to improved quality of patient care. Supervision helps in monitoring staff performance, providing feedback, and offering guidance when needed. Delegation ensures that tasks are allocated to the right staff members based on their skills and abilities, optimizing the workflow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of supervision and delegation, which is to enhance the quality of nursing care through effective oversight and task allocation.
Question 7 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage renal disease is experiencing symptoms of depression. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing emotional support and offering counseling or therapy sessions address the root cause of the patient's depression in a holistic manner. This intervention allows the patient to express their emotions, process their feelings, and receive guidance on coping strategies. Encouraging social activities (A) may not directly address the underlying emotional issues. Referring to a psychiatrist for medication (B) should be considered if counseling alone is insufficient. Exploring spiritual beliefs (D) is important but may not be the most immediate priority for addressing depression in this context.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with acute onset of shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the greater tuberosity of the humerus and pain with passive abduction and external rotation of the shoulder. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotator cuff tear. The presentation of acute shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand, along with tenderness over the greater tuberosity and pain with passive abduction and external rotation, is classic for a rotator cuff tear. The mechanism of injury and physical exam findings are consistent with this condition. B: Glenohumeral dislocation typically presents with a visibly deformed shoulder and loss of normal shoulder contour. C: Acromioclavicular joint separation would present with tenderness over the AC joint rather than the greater tuberosity, and typically involves a history of direct trauma to the shoulder. D: Proximal humerus fracture would present with more diffuse shoulder pain and swelling, and not specific tenderness over the greater tuberosity.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with chronic bronchitis presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and exertional dyspnea. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing the patient's symptoms and improving quality of life?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchodilator therapy. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, which can improve airflow and reduce symptoms such as cough, sputum production, and dyspnea in patients with chronic bronchitis. This intervention can help manage the patient's symptoms and improve their quality of life by making it easier for them to breathe. A: Smoking cessation counseling is important for overall management of chronic bronchitis, but it does not directly address the patient's current symptoms. B: Oral antibiotic therapy may be indicated if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, but it is not the first-line treatment for managing chronic bronchitis symptoms. C: Home oxygen therapy may be necessary for patients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not typically the first intervention for managing symptoms of chronic bronchitis without evidence of significant oxygen desaturation.