Korino has been using meperidine and codeine for personal consumption. Which of the following does the nurse understand as the physiologic effect of these drugs?

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Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Korino has been using meperidine and codeine for personal consumption. Which of the following does the nurse understand as the physiologic effect of these drugs?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieves pain by increasing pain threshold. Meperidine and codeine are opioid analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, thus increasing the pain threshold and reducing the perception of pain. This leads to pain relief without necessarily affecting sexual stimulation (choice A), craving for alcohol (choice C), or concentration/alertness (choice D). The primary physiological effect of these drugs is to modulate the perception of pain, making choice B the most appropriate answer in this context.

Question 2 of 9

Nurse Mauve is now on ethical dilemma. This occurs when _______.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an ethical dilemma arises when there is a conflict between two or more ethical principles, leading to a difficult decision-making situation for Nurse Mauve. This involves weighing the benefits and consequences of each ethical principle to determine the best course of action. Choice A is incorrect as time pressure does not define an ethical dilemma. Choice B is incorrect because ethical dilemmas involve conflicting choices, not unclear ones. Choice C is incorrect as the conflict in an ethical dilemma is not necessarily with a superior but can be internal or with other stakeholders.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. Which nursing intervention is essential for preventing infection in the foot ulcer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C is correct as keeping the ulcer covered with a sterile dressing provides a barrier against pathogens, promoting wound healing and preventing infection. A (topical antibiotics) can lead to resistance and disrupt normal flora. B (daily wound debridement) may introduce pathogens and delay healing. D (oral antibiotics prophylactically) is not recommended without evidence of infection.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following directly VIOLATES the Patient's Bill of Rights?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because disclosing a patient's HIV status to family members violates the patient's right to privacy and confidentiality. Patient confidentiality is a fundamental aspect of the Patient's Bill of Rights, ensuring that personal health information is protected. The other choices (A, C, D) do not directly violate the Patient's Bill of Rights. Choice A relates to transparency in billing, choice C is about honesty in communication, and choice D is about timely communication with the physician, all of which are in line with patient rights and quality care.

Question 5 of 9

When there is failure to supervise a child adequately, especially in children younger than 12, the kind of child abuse is, which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neglect. Failure to supervise a child adequately falls under the category of neglect, which is the failure to provide for a child's basic needs such as supervision, food, shelter, and medical care. In this scenario, the lack of proper supervision constitutes neglect as it puts the child at risk of harm or danger. Emotional abuse (A) involves harming a child's emotional well-being through actions like verbal abuse. Sexual abuse (C) involves inappropriate sexual behavior towards a child. Physical abuse (D) involves causing physical harm or injury to a child. In this case, the failure to supervise the child adequately is best categorized as neglect, making choice B the correct answer.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with chronic nasal congestion, hyposmia, and anosmia. Nasal endoscopy reveals polypoid masses obstructing the nasal cavity and sinuses. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nasal polyps. Nasal polyps are benign growths that form in the nasal cavity and sinuses, leading to symptoms such as chronic nasal congestion, hyposmia, and anosmia. The presence of polypoid masses seen on nasal endoscopy is characteristic of nasal polyps. Rationale: 1. Chronic nasal congestion, hyposmia, and anosmia are common symptoms of nasal polyps. 2. Nasal endoscopy revealing polypoid masses confirms the presence of nasal polyps. 3. Allergic rhinitis may cause nasal congestion but does not typically present with polypoid masses. 4. Chronic sinusitis can cause nasal congestion but is usually associated with inflammation of the sinuses, not just polypoid masses. 5. A deviated nasal septum can lead to nasal congestion but does not typically cause polypoid masses obstructing the nasal cavity and sinuses.

Question 7 of 9

While patient Sarah is confined in the hospital, the safety measure to be observed by the nurses is prevention from fall. This is brought about by the patient being prone to fracture as a result of________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, making individuals more susceptible to fractures, especially with minor trauma or falls. In the context of a patient prone to fractures, nurses should be particularly cautious about fall prevention. A: The aging process alone does not necessarily lead to an increased risk of fractures. While aging is a risk factor for osteoporosis, it is not the direct cause of fractures in this case. C: Changes in vision can contribute to an increased risk of falls, but it is not the primary reason for the patient being prone to fractures in this scenario. D: Hematologic conditions may affect bone health, but they are not typically the primary cause of increased fracture risk in patients.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with advanced cancer develops malignant bowel obstruction, resulting in abdominal pain and distension. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.

Question 9 of 9

The physician ordered to start Ms. Mely on Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). What Is your INITIAL step to be undertaken PRIOR to this intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial step before starting TPN is to evaluate the patient's tolerance to glucose. This is crucial to ensure the patient can metabolize the glucose effectively and avoid complications such as hyperglycemia. Assessing affordability (A) is important but not the immediate concern. Identifying allergies (C) should be done but is not the first step. Assessing the patient's understanding (D) is important but not as critical as evaluating glucose tolerance before starting TPN.

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