Knowing the different modes of communication used by men and women is important for the nurse manager. Which of the following is a difference in communication in unpleasant situations?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it highlights a common difference in communication styles between men and women in unpleasant situations. Men tend to talk more to assert dominance or control the situation, while women may withdraw to avoid conflict. This difference can impact how conflicts are resolved and relationships are maintained. Choice B is incorrect as using tag questions is not specifically a gender difference in communication during unpleasant situations. Choice C is incorrect as it generalizes that women disagree more without specifying the context of unpleasant situations. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the length and speed of communication rather than addressing the specific behavior in unpleasant situations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The patient will reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. This goal is most important because it directly addresses the patient's diabetes management by aiming to achieve good glycemic control. Lowering the HbA1c level to less than 7% is a key indicator of reduced risk for diabetes-related complications. Options B, C, and D are not as critical in addressing the specific nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition. Option B focuses on weight loss, which may not necessarily address the underlying issue of imbalanced nutrition. Option C addresses meal distribution but does not directly target improved glycemic control. Option D emphasizes eliminating simple sugars but does not encompass the comprehensive management of diabetes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C (require administration of insulin while taking prednisone): 1. Prednisone can increase blood glucose levels by reducing insulin sensitivity. 2. Metformin alone may not control blood glucose levels adequately in the presence of prednisone. 3. Therefore, the patient may require insulin to manage blood glucose levels while on prednisone. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: This is incorrect because insulin administration is not necessary due to the rash or the interaction between metformin and prednisone. B: This is incorrect because prednisone can actually increase blood glucose levels, leading to hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia. D: This is incorrect because the rash is not likely caused by an interaction between metformin and prednisone, but rather an allergic reaction to an unknown cause.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, thus helping to prevent the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. This mechanism of action is effective in managing neuropathic pain, such as burning foot pain in diabetic patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amitriptyline's primary mechanism of action is related to its effects on neurotransmitter reuptake, not directly related to mood improvement, blood vessel changes, or sleep improvement.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 146/88 mmHg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes. High blood pressure can lead to cardiovascular complications and may warrant a change in therapy. A: Hemoglobin A1C level 6.2% is within the target range for diabetes control. C: Resting heart rate of 58 beats/minute is within the normal range for an active individual. D: HDL level of 65 mg/dL is considered high and is actually beneficial for cardiovascular health.