Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair. 1. Local anesthesia is needed to minimize pain during the procedure. 2. Cleansing is crucial to remove contaminants and reduce the risk of infection. 3. Suture repair is necessary for a jagged laceration of this size to promote proper wound healing and minimize scarring. Summary of other choices: A: Antibiotic therapy is not routinely needed for clean lacerations, and covering alone may not provide adequate wound closure. B: While wound exploration for foreign bodies is important, it is not the immediate priority for this patient with an open, flapping laceration. D: While cleansing, covering, and tetanus prophylaxis are important, antibiotic therapy is not routinely needed for clean lacerations.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The use of bed cradle in leg thrombosis management is to promote venous drainage. Elevating the legs on a bed cradle helps improve blood flow back to the heart, reducing swelling and preventing blood clots. Keeping the legs straight (A) is not the main purpose. Preventing embolism (B) is important but not the direct purpose of a bed cradle. Controlling body temperature (C) is unrelated to the use of a bed cradle for leg thrombosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because high-volume liver resection is typically performed in individuals with significantly compromised hepatic function to ensure adequate liver remnant. Removing 50 to 75% of the liver in a patient with metastatic colon cancer may be necessary for tumor clearance but carries risks due to potential impairment of liver function postoperatively. Choices B and C provide inaccurate information regarding the timeline and extent of liver regeneration following resection. Choice D is incorrect as removing up to 95% of the liver would lead to severe consequences, such as liver failure. Hence, option A is the most appropriate advice given the patient's situation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (500-1500 gm) because very low birth weight babies typically weigh less than 1500 grams at birth. This range encompasses the common weight range for these babies. Option A (1000-500 gm) is too narrow and excludes babies weighing below 500 grams. Option C (1001-1500 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies weighing over 1500 grams. Option D (1500-2000 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies above the typical weight range for very low birth weight babies.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit. This method involves flexing the hips, extending the thighs, and applying suprapubic pressure to deliver the head in a complete breech presentation. This technique helps to avoid hyperextension of the neck and potential spinal cord injury. The Lovset maneuver (A) is used for delivering the arms in a breech presentation. The Burns Marshall method (C) involves performing an episiotomy and delivering the baby by flexion and traction on the legs. Gentle traction of the neck (D) is not recommended as it can cause spinal cord injury. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit is the preferred method for safe delivery of the head in a complete breech presentation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute epidural hematoma. A crescent-shaped fluid collection seen on a head CT scan following trauma is indicative of an epidural hematoma, which typically occurs due to an arterial bleed between the dura mater and the skull. This collection appears biconvex due to the restriction of the hematoma by the dura mater and is often associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: A: Acute subdural hematoma typically presents as a crescent-shaped collection but is located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater, not between the dura mater and skull as seen in epidural hematomas. C: Acute uncal herniation involves displacement of the uncus of the temporal lobe, leading to compression of the brainstem, but it does not manifest as a crescent-shaped fluid collection. D: Acute brainstem compression does not typically present as a distinct crescent-shaped

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fistula formation. Fistula formation is the most severe type of urinary tract trauma as it involves an abnormal connection between the urinary tract and another organ or the skin. This condition can lead to severe complications such as recurrent infections, incontinence, and even sepsis. Retention of urine (A) is a symptom of urinary tract obstruction, not necessarily the most severe type of trauma. Stress incontinence (B) is a common condition but is not indicative of severe trauma. Scalding sensation (C) can be a symptom of a urinary tract infection but does not necessarily indicate severe trauma like fistula formation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.