ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair. 1. Local anesthesia is needed to numb the area before suturing. 2. Cleansing is necessary to prevent infection and remove debris. 3. Suture repair is required for a jagged laceration to promote proper wound healing and minimize scarring. Other choices are incorrect: A: Antibiotic therapy is not indicated for clean, non-infected wounds like this laceration. B: Wound exploration for foreign bodies is not necessary in this case as the mechanism of injury is known and there is no indication of foreign bodies. D: Tetanus prophylaxis is important but not directly related to the immediate management of the laceration.
Question 2 of 9
A condition of trial of scar is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A trial of scar is indicated when a woman has had no more than two previous caesarean sections. This is because the risk of uterine rupture increases with each subsequent caesarean section due to scar tissue weakening. Limiting the number of previous scars reduces this risk. Therefore, option C is correct. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Estimated fetal weight is not a determining factor for a trial of scar. B: Availability of a level one hospital nearby is important for emergency situations but not a criteria for trial of scar. D: Adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm is important for vaginal delivery but not a specific requirement for a trial of scar.
Question 3 of 9
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy treatment for cancer is given to facilitate surgical resection. When the outcomes of cancer therapies are evaluated, the terms complete response and partial response often are used. Partial response means that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in the context of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, a partial response means converting an unresectable tumor to a resectable one. This is crucial as it allows for successful surgical removal of the tumor. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately define partial response in the context of cancer therapy. A, stating 50% of patients demonstrating remission, is not specific to the change in resectability. B, mentioning 50% survival at 5 years, is more related to overall survival rather than the response to treatment. C, stating a reduction in tumor mass by >50%, does not necessarily imply a change in resectability status. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate definition of partial response in the given scenario.
Question 4 of 9
When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tympany. Tenderness to percussion is analogous to tympany as both indicate the presence of gas-filled structures. When a patient experiences tenderness to percussion in the abdomen, it suggests that there is gas or air present in the abdomen, leading to a hollow, drum-like sound upon percussion, which is characteristic of tympany. Guarding (B) is the involuntary contraction of abdominal muscles to protect the underlying organs, not related to percussion. Rebound tenderness (C) is the pain experienced when pressure is released during palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) refers to pain originating from the skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion findings.
Question 5 of 9
Based upon an understanding of the normal relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion, the AGACNP recognizes that which of the following combinations is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypogastrinemia and acid hyposecretion. Gastrinoma is a tumor that secretes excessive gastrin, leading to hypergastrinemia and increased acid secretion. However, due to a negative feedback mechanism, chronic exposure to high gastrin levels can cause downregulation of gastrin receptors on parietal cells, leading to decreased acid secretion. Therefore, in gastrinoma, despite high gastrin levels, acid secretion may be reduced due to this negative feedback loop. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the expected relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion in gastrinoma.
Question 6 of 9
Deep transverse arrest is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest refers to a situation where the fetal head fails to rotate and descend in the pelvis due to the occiput and sinciput being at the same level. This leads to a prolonged labor. Choice A is incorrect because flexion can be inadequate in deep transverse arrest. Choice B is incorrect because it is not solely caused by uterine contractions but rather fetal malposition. Choice C is incorrect because a well-curved sacrum is not a defining factor in deep transverse arrest.
Question 7 of 9
Deep transverse arrest is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest occurs when the level of the occiput and the sinciput is the same, leading to a failure of descent of the fetal head through the pelvis. This alignment issue hinders the progress of labor despite adequate contractions. A: Incorrect. Flexion being well maintained is not a defining characteristic of deep transverse arrest. B: Incorrect. While strong uterine contractions can contribute to labor challenges, deep transverse arrest is specifically related to the alignment of the fetal head. C: Incorrect. The curvature of the sacrum is not directly related to deep transverse arrest.
Question 8 of 9
How can Braxton Hicks contractions be differentiated from true labor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - All of the above. Braxton Hicks contractions can be differentiated from true labor by timing, intensity, and duration. Timing refers to the regularity of contractions, intensity relates to the strength of contractions, and duration indicates how long contractions last. By considering all three factors together, one can determine whether contractions are Braxton Hicks (practice contractions) or true labor contractions. Choices A, B, and C alone provide only partial information, which may lead to misinterpretation. Therefore, choosing all three factors collectively (D) is essential for accurate differentiation.
Question 9 of 9
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients. Summary for other choices: B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice. C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective. D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.