Jim is a 47-year-old man who is having difficulties with sexual function. He is recently separated from his wife of 20 years. He notes that he has early morning erections but otherwise cannot function. Which of the following is a likely cause for his problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Given the information provided about Jim's recent separation from his wife after a long marriage, coupled with the fact that he still experiences early morning erections, the likely cause for his sexual function difficulties is psychological issues. Separation, divorce, or relationship problems can have a significant impact on a person's sexual function due to emotional stress, anxiety, depression, or other mental health issues. In Jim's case, the presence of early morning erections suggests that there may not be a physiological issue like decreased testosterone levels, abnormal circulation, or impaired neural innervation. Instead, the situation seems more related to his emotional state and psychological well-being following the separation. It would be advisable for Jim to seek counseling or therapy to address these psychological factors affecting his sexual function.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of visual acuity, the numbers in the ratio 20/100 represent a comparison between the patient's vision and normal vision. Specifically, a visual acuity of 20/100 means that the patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 100 feet. This indicates that the patient's vision is reduced, as she needs to be closer to see the same level of detail compared to someone with normal vision.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Even after a unilateral mastectomy, women should continue to self-examine and have regular clinical examinations for any signs of recurrence or new masses. It is important to closely monitor the surgical scar area for any changes or abnormalities, as breast cancer can still occur in the remaining breast tissue. Regular breast examinations remain important in the early detection of any potential issues, even after mastectomy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the scenario is classic for bacterial vaginosis (BV). BV is the most common cause of vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age. Key features of BV include a thin gray-white discharge with a fishy odor, which typically worsens after sexual intercourse and during menstruation. The discharge characteristically has a pH over 4.5, and the presence of clue cells on wet prep is diagnostic. Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, giving them a stippled appearance when viewed under the microscope. These features are consistent with the findings in this patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The scenario described with a strong pulse followed by a weak pulse is characteristic of pulsus paradoxus, a finding often associated with cardiac tamponade. Cardiac tamponade is a medical emergency where there is an accumulation of fluid (such as blood) in the pericardial sac that exerts pressure on the heart, limiting its ability to pump effectively. As a result, patients may exhibit this pulsus paradoxus, where the pulse strength varies with respiration. The other conditions listed (emphysema, asthma exacerbation, severe left heart failure) are not typically associated with this specific pulsatile pattern.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most likely cause of neck pain in this scenario is a cervical sprain. A cervical sprain is an injury to the ligaments in the neck as a result of sudden force or trauma, such as a motor vehicle collision. The symptoms of a cervical sprain typically include pain, stiffness in the neck, and muscle spasm. The fact that the patient has pain and spasm over the paraspinous muscles on one side of the neck, along with pain during active range of motion, is characteristic of a sprain. It is important to consider this diagnosis in individuals who have recently experienced trauma to the neck region. Treatment for a cervical sprain usually includes pain management, rest, and gentle stretching exercises to help with recovery.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The description provided indicates a presentation consistent with gonococcal arthritis. Gonococcal arthritis is an infectious arthritis caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Symptoms typically include red, swollen, and painful joints, especially affecting the distal joints of the limbs. The presence of papules, pustules, and vesicles on reddened bases at the distal extremities is characteristic of disseminated gonococcal infection. In women, the DIP joint involvement in the finger can be indicative of this condition. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics are essential to prevent complications associated with gonococcal arthritis. It is important to consider a sexually transmitted infection like gonorrhea in young patients presenting with joint symptoms and cutaneous findings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The target heart rate during physical activity is typically calculated as a percentage of maximum heart rate, which is estimated using the formula: 220 - age. For a 30-year-old individual, the estimated maximum heart rate would be 190 beats per minute. Exercising at 60-70% of the maximum heart rate is usually recommended for moderate-intensity physical activity. For this individual, the target heart rate zone would be approximately 114-133 beats per minute. Therefore, achieving a heart rate of 120 beats per minute would fall within the target range and indicate an appropriate level of exertion for effective physical activity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Prostate cancer is more prevalent in certain ethnic groups, with African-American men having the highest risk of developing prostate cancer compared to men of other ethnicities. Additionally, men of Caribbean and West African descent also have an increased risk compared to men of Asian descent. This indicates that ethnicity plays a role in the risk of developing prostate cancer.