Jestoni with chronic renal failure (CRF) is admitted to the urology unit. The nurse is aware that the diagnostic test are consistent with CRF if the result is:

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Biological Basis of Behavior Questions

Question 1 of 5

Jestoni with chronic renal failure (CRF) is admitted to the urology unit. The nurse is aware that the diagnostic test are consistent with CRF if the result is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in chronic renal failure (CRF), the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to elevated levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine. BUN levels higher than 100 mg/dl and serum creatinine levels higher than 6.5 mg/dl indicate impaired kidney function, which is characteristic of CRF. A is incorrect because in CRF, pH tends to be decreased rather than increased due to metabolic acidosis. B is incorrect because in CRF, there is typically a buildup of potassium, magnesium, and calcium in the blood, not an increase in their serum levels. D is incorrect because uric acid levels and phenolsulfonphthalein excretion are not specific markers for CRF. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on the characteristic laboratory findings in chronic renal failure.

Question 2 of 5

A female client arrives at the emergency department with chest and stomach pain and a report of black tarry stool for several months. Which of the following order should the nurse Oliver anticipate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct order to anticipate for the female client with chest and stomach pain and black tarry stool is option C. Firstly, an electrocardiogram is necessary to assess for any cardiac issues related to the chest pain. Next, a complete blood count is essential to evaluate for any potential blood disorders causing the black tarry stool. Testing for occult blood helps identify any gastrointestinal bleeding. Lastly, a comprehensive serum metabolic panel provides a broad assessment of the client's overall health status. Option A is incorrect as creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase levels are not typically indicated for the presenting symptoms. Option B focuses on coagulation parameters, which are not the primary concern in this case. Option D includes tests unrelated to the client's symptoms, making it an inappropriate choice.

Question 3 of 5

Norma asks for information about osteoarthritis. Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is correct?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis, affecting millions worldwide. It is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage in joints. This statement is correct as it accurately reflects the prevalence and impact of osteoarthritis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Osteoarthritis can indeed be debilitating, especially in advanced cases, affecting mobility and quality of life. B: Osteoarthritis is not rare; it is prevalent, particularly in older populations. D: While osteoarthritis is more common in older adults, it can also affect people of all ages, including younger individuals due to factors like joint injury or genetics.

Question 4 of 5

Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which he receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Mariner should expect the dose's:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action around 30 minutes after administration, with its peak action occurring around 2-4 hours later. In this case, the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., so the onset would be around 2:30 p.m. and the peak around 4 p.m. Option A is incorrect because the onset of action is not immediate at 2 p.m. and peak action happens later. Option B is incorrect as the onset would be closer to 2:30 p.m. Option D is incorrect as the peak action would not occur 2 hours after onset. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate based on the pharmacokinetics of regular insulin.

Question 5 of 5

A client with shortness of breath has decreased to absent breath sounds on the right side, from the apex to the base. Which of the following conditions would best explain this?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Spontaneous pneumothorax. In this scenario, the decreased to absent breath sounds on the right side indicate a possible lung collapse, which is characteristic of a spontaneous pneumothorax. This condition occurs when air enters the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The absence of breath sounds is due to the lack of air movement in the affected lung. Acute asthma (choice A) typically presents with wheezing and prolonged expiration. Chronic bronchitis (choice B) is characterized by productive cough and wheezing. Pneumonia (choice C) would present with crackles and increased breath sounds in the affected area.

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