ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections. A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection. B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism. C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders. A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children. In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.
Question 3 of 5
M. T. is a 71-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a lump on her chest. She denies any symptomsthere is no pain, erythema, edema, ecchymosis, or open areasit is just a lump. She has no idea how long it has been there and just noticed it a few weeks ago. Physical examination reveals a round, smooth, flesh-colored tumor. It is firm but not hard it has smooth borders. It measures 6 cm in diameter and is non-tender to palpation. The AGACNP suspects that this is a classic presentation of the most common chest wall tumor known as a
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lipoma. A lipoma is a common benign tumor made of fat cells. In this case, the patient's presentation of a painless, soft, round, flesh-colored lump with smooth borders is consistent with a lipoma. The absence of symptoms like pain, erythema, or tenderness further supports this diagnosis. Lipomas are usually non-tender to palpation and can grow to a significant size. The other choices (A, C, D) are not the correct answers because they do not align with the characteristics described in the patient's presentation. Neurolemma is associated with nerve sheath tumors, hemangioma with blood vessel tumors, and lymphangioma with lymphatic vessel tumors, none of which match the clinical findings in this case.
Question 4 of 5
Ms. Carpenter is a 28-year-old female who presents in significant pain she indicates that the discomfort is in the right lower quadrant. The discomfort is colicky in nature and has the patient in tears. Which of the following associated findings increases the index of suspicion for ureteral colic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature > 102°F. A high fever in the context of right lower quadrant colicky pain raises concern for ureteral colic, which is often caused by kidney stones. Fever may indicate infection or obstruction, requiring urgent medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are common findings in cases of ureteral colic but are not as specific to raise the index of suspicion. White blood cell count elevation and hematuria are common with kidney stones, while vomiting is a common symptom due to severe pain. However, fever is a more concerning sign that necessitates prompt evaluation.
Question 5 of 5
The AGACNP knows that when evaluating a patient with suspected acute pyelonephritis, which of the following is not a common feature?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pyuria. Pyuria is a common feature in acute pyelonephritis, as it indicates the presence of white blood cells in the urine due to the infection. Fever, CVA tenderness, and gross hematuria are all common features of acute pyelonephritis. Fever is a systemic response to infection, CVA tenderness indicates inflammation of the kidney, and gross hematuria is often seen due to inflammation and damage to the kidney tissue. Therefore, the absence of pyuria would be unexpected in a patient with suspected acute pyelonephritis.