Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma. Given Janet's post-hepatic resection status and abnormal lab values indicating liver dysfunction (elevated bilirubin, low albumin, prolonged prothrombin time, elevated AST and ALT), she is at risk for coagulopathy and hypoalbuminemia. Infusing albumin can help improve her oncotic pressure and fluid balance, while fresh frozen plasma can replenish clotting factors to address the prolonged prothrombin time. This intervention aims to stabilize her condition before transferring to the general medical floor. Canceling the transfer (Choice A) is not necessary if appropriate interventions can be taken. Repeating labs the next day (Choice C) delays potentially needed treatments. Preparing for reoperation (Choice D) is not indicated based on the information provided.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperbaric oxygen. SSHL is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases oxygen delivery to the inner ear, potentially reversing the hearing loss. Acyclovir (A) is used for viral infections, not SSHL. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic used for treating fluid retention, not SSHL. Warfarin (C) is an anticoagulant and is not indicated for SSHL. In summary, hyperbaric oxygen is the appropriate choice for managing SSHL due to its potential to improve oxygen delivery to the inner ear.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma. Given Janet's post-hepatic resection status and abnormal lab values indicating liver dysfunction (elevated bilirubin, low albumin, prolonged prothrombin time, elevated AST and ALT), she is at risk for coagulopathy and hypoalbuminemia. Infusing albumin can help improve her oncotic pressure and fluid balance, while fresh frozen plasma can replenish clotting factors to address the prolonged prothrombin time. This intervention aims to stabilize her condition before transferring to the general medical floor. Canceling the transfer (Choice A) is not necessary if appropriate interventions can be taken. Repeating labs the next day (Choice C) delays potentially needed treatments. Preparing for reoperation (Choice D) is not indicated based on the information provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: External cephalic version. This procedure involves manually manipulating the baby from a breech position to a head-down position. It is recommended as a safe and effective way to manage breech presentations, reducing the need for a cesarean section. Immediate cesarean (B) is not always necessary and should be reserved for specific medical reasons. Pelvic X-ray (C) is not routinely recommended for managing breech presentations. Induction of labor (D) is not the primary strategy for managing breech presentations, as it does not address the positioning of the baby.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Splenectomy. In this case, the patient presents with signs of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) with low platelet count and bleeding time prolongation. Splenectomy is the definitive treatment for ITP as the spleen is the site of platelet destruction. Avoiding elective surgery and medications (choice A) may be necessary to prevent bleeding complications but do not address the underlying issue. Prednisone (choice B) is used for acute treatment but not for long-term management. Monoclonal antibody therapy (choice C) is an option for refractory cases but not first-line therapy.