Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows serum bilirubin approximately 2 gdL, albumin 3.1 gdL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare for reoperation. Given the patient's elevated AST and ALT levels after hepatic resection, along with abnormal prothrombin time and low albumin, there is concern for liver dysfunction. This indicates a potential complication post-surgery, such as hepatic insufficiency or failure, necessitating reoperation for further evaluation and management. Cancelling the transfer (A) would delay necessary intervention. Infusing albumin and fresh frozen plasma (B) would address only the symptoms but not the underlying cause. Repeating labs the next day (C) would not address the urgency of the situation.

Question 2 of 5

Hepatic encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome seen in patients with chronic liver disease its presentation may range from mild personality changes, to psychosis, to coma. The primary chemical mediators of hepatic encephalopathy include all of the following except

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serotonin. Serotonin is not a primary chemical mediator of hepatic encephalopathy. The main chemical mediators involved in hepatic encephalopathy are A: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), B: Ammonia, and C: False neurotransmitters. GABA plays a role in inhibiting neurotransmission, ammonia is a key factor in the pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy, and false neurotransmitters are produced due to altered amino acid metabolism in the liver. Serotonin is not a key player in the development of hepatic encephalopathy, hence it is the correct answer.

Question 3 of 5

The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice in managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that reduces neuronal excitability and neuromuscular transmission, thus preventing seizures. It also helps in lowering blood pressure and preventing complications. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (B) is used for calcium deficiency, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to correct acidosis, not for managing eclampsia.

Question 4 of 5

The MAIN function of surfactant factor is to

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent alveoli of the lungs from collapsing. Surfactant reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing them from collapsing during exhalation and maintaining lung compliance. B, C, and D are incorrect because surfactant primarily affects lung mechanics, not the initiation of breathing, maturity of the respiratory center, or immediate regulation of breathing upon birth.

Question 5 of 5

In uterine inversion, the last part to be replaced is the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In uterine inversion, the fundus is the last part to be replaced due to its position being the deepest inside the vagina. The fundus is the upper portion of the uterus and is the last part to invert back into its normal position. The cervix, isthmus, and body are parts of the uterus that are more easily replaced during the process of uterine inversion. The fundus being the final part to be replaced ensures the uterus is fully restored to its correct orientation.

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