ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
It is not enough for the nurse to listen, but she also has, to validate what she has heard. The importance of validation are the following EXCEPT _____
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The importance of validation in the context of communication and nursing care does not include the assumption that most patients are cognitively impaired. It would be more appropriate to approach patient interactions with the assumption that patients are capable of understanding and coherent communication. Validation is important because it helps ensure that the nurse has truly understood the patient's message, prevents misinterpretation, and fosters a sense of empathy and trust in the nurse-patient relationship. Additionally, validating the patient's thoughts and feelings can help clarify confused thoughts and promote effective communication. The other options (A, C, and D) are all valid reasons emphasizing the significance of validation in effective communication.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse researcher is planning a research study that will use human subjects and their choice to participate in a specific treatment. The ethical principle that describes a prospective subject's freedom to choose whether or not to participate in the research study is what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Respect for persons is an ethical principle that emphasizes the autonomy and freedom of individuals to make their own decisions regarding participation in research studies. In the context of human subjects research, this principle requires that individuals have the right to choose whether or not to participate in a study, without any coercion or manipulation. The principle of respect for persons also includes the concept of informed consent, where individuals must be provided with all necessary information about the study in order to make an informed decision about participation. Overall, respecting the autonomy and choices of individuals is a fundamental aspect of ethical research conduct.
Question 3 of 9
Which element of malpractice occurs when the nurse does not act as a reasonable, prudent person would have acted in a similar circumstance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Breach of duty is the element of malpractice that occurs when the nurse does not act as a reasonable, prudent person would have acted in a similar circumstance. This means that the nurse failed to uphold the standard of care expected in their practice. In a malpractice case, it must be proven that the nurse breached their duty of care towards the patient by not providing the expected level of skill and care that another reasonable nurse in the same situation would have provided.
Question 4 of 9
What is the primary collaborative goal treatment for Ms. C?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary collaborative goal for the treatment of Ms. C should be to restore normal nutrition and weight. This is essential in addressing the potential health issues associated with anorexia nervosa, which is characterized by significantly low body weight and malnutrition. By focusing on restoring normal nutrition and weight, Ms. C can improve her physical health and overall well-being. Resolving possible dysfunctional family roles as an adolescent, increasing the desire to eat, and assisting her to increase feelings of control over eating are important aspects of treatment as well, but the most immediate goal should be to address the physical consequences of anorexia nervosa through restoring normal nutrition and weight.
Question 5 of 9
A postpartum client exhibits signs of postpartum psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized behavior. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a postpartum client exhibits signs of postpartum psychosis such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized behavior, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately. Postpartum psychosis is a psychiatric emergency that requires prompt assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. The healthcare provider can determine the appropriate course of action, which may include hospitalization, medication management, and specialized psychiatric care. Delaying notification can lead to serious consequences for both the client and her infant, so timely intervention is essential in managing postpartum psychosis.
Question 6 of 9
Bulimia is best defined as a /an _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is best defined as a pathological disorder involving recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or misuse of laxatives. It is categorized as an eating disorder rather than a phobic disorder as it involves behaviors related to food consumption and body image, not just fears or phobias. Bulimia is not solely associated with starving oneself, as individuals with bulimia tend to consume large amounts of food during binge episodes. Therefore, the most accurate definition of bulimia is a pathological disorder of binging and vomiting.
Question 7 of 9
The Right to Information does not include _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Right to Information pertains to the patient's right to be informed about their condition, treatment plan, and to have access to relevant medical information. It does not include specific details about payment or insurance coverage, such as the extent to which payment may be expected from PhilHealth. While financial information is important for patients, it does not fall under the scope of the Right to Information in a healthcare context, which focuses more on medical information and decision-making processes.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) to manage anemia. Which laboratory parameter should be monitored closely during ESA therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) are prescribed to manage anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease. Monitoring the hemoglobin level closely during ESA therapy is crucial to ensure that the treatment is effective in increasing red blood cell production without causing excessive elevation. Hemoglobin levels should be checked regularly to adjust the ESA dosage accordingly and prevent risks associated with high hematocrit levels, such as increasing blood viscosity and cardiovascular events. Monitoring serum potassium, creatinine, and platelet count are important in the management of chronic kidney disease for different reasons, but for ESA therapy, monitoring hemoglobin is the most essential parameter.
Question 9 of 9
A 38-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On pelvic examination, the uterus is retroverted and fixed. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Endometriosis is the most likely condition responsible for the symptoms described in this scenario. Endometriosis is a chronic condition in which endometrial-like tissue grows outside the uterus, commonly affecting the pelvic structures such as the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and pelvic peritoneum. The main symptoms include cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and dyspareunia (pain during intercourse). The retroverted and fixed uterus on examination may be due to adhesions from endometriosis, causing the uterus to be fixed in position. Endometriosis should be considered in women of reproductive age presenting with these symptoms and pelvic examination findings.