ATI RN
ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
It is defined as the fraction of drug absorbed by the body
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bioavailability is defined as the fraction of drug that reaches systemic circulation in an unchanged form after administration. It is a crucial pharmacokinetic parameter that reflects the amount and rate of drug absorption. Bioavailability can be influenced by various factors such as the route of administration, drug formulation, and first-pass metabolism. Monitoring bioavailability is important in determining the efficacy and dosage requirements of a drug.
Question 2 of 5
The following are schedule II drugs, except :
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and dependency but also have accepted medical uses. A, C, D, and E are all classified as schedule II drugs. However, heroin is not a schedule II drug; it is classified as a schedule I drug due to its extremely high potential for abuse and lack of accepted medical use in the United States.
Question 3 of 5
Age associated changes in pharmacokinetics include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aging reduces creatinine clearance in about two-thirds of individuals due to declining renal function, a true statement impacting drug excretion. Body fat increases, not decreases, with age, altering distribution of lipophilic drugs, so that's false. Total body water decreases, not increases, affecting hydrophilic drugs. Conjugation (phase II) is less affected than oxidation (phase I) by age, making that false. Absorption isn't significantly altered by age alone. Reduced renal clearance is a critical age-related change, necessitating dose adjustments for renally cleared drugs like digoxin.
Question 4 of 5
Following ingestion, a drug crosses a membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This is an example of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diffusion moves drugs passively from high to low concentration across membranes, like oral absorption, a pharmacokinetic staple. Active transport uses energy against gradients. Osmosis is water-specific. Metabolism alters drugs chemically. Diffusion fits, driving initial uptake.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been changed from a first generation H1 receptor antagonist to a second generation H1 receptor antagonist. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands the benefit of this change when which statement is made?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Second-generation H1 antagonists (e.g., loratadine) are less lipophilic, reducing blood-brain barrier crossing, thus causing less sedation than first-generation ones (e.g., diphenhydramine). 'This drug will not make me as sleepy' shows the patient grasps this benefit, improving daily function. Alcohol still risks sedation. Dry mouth and urinary issues are anticholinergic effects less reduced in second-generation drugs. Choice D confirms understanding of the primary advantage.