ATI RN
Advanced Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
_____ is an example of an agonist-antagonist opioid.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Definition of agonist-antagonist opioid - It has both agonist (activates opioid receptors) and antagonist (blocks opioid receptors) properties. Step 2: Buprenorphine is a partial agonist opioid that activates and blocks opioid receptors. Step 3: Buprenorphine's agonist activity treats pain, while its antagonist activity reduces abuse potential. Step 4: Diprenorphine, Naloxone, and Morphine do not have both agonist and antagonist properties. Summary: Diprenorphine is a pure antagonist, Naloxone is a pure antagonist, and Morphine is a pure agonist, making them different from the agonist-antagonist opioid, Buprenorphine.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with COPD is acutely hypercapneic. Which respiratory therapy should you prescribe to lower the patient's carbon dioxide concentration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oxygen via a nasal cannula 2L/minute. In hypercapneic COPD patients, supplemental oxygen helps reduce the respiratory drive, leading to decreased carbon dioxide levels. Salmeterol and fluticasone propionate are used for long-term maintenance in COPD and do not address acute hypercapnia. Albuterol nebulizer is used for bronchodilation and does not directly lower carbon dioxide levels. Oxygen therapy is the most appropriate immediate intervention to address acute hypercapnia in COPD patients.
Question 3 of 5
Probiotics are recommended to be co-administered when what are prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Probiotics are recommended to be co-administered with antibiotics because antibiotics can disrupt the balance of good and bad bacteria in the gut, leading to digestive issues. Probiotics help restore the balance by introducing beneficial bacteria. Antibiotics do not affect the same mechanisms as antidiarrheals, antihistamines, or antihypertensives, so co-administration with probiotics is not necessary for these medications.
Question 4 of 5
A 39-year old patient who has been taking a specific antibiotic for years without problems develops tachycardia, lowered blood pressure, wheezing, and urticaria when given this antibiotic in the clinic. The most likely explanation for this occurrence is that the patient:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient is exhibiting symptoms of an anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction, which is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction to the antibiotic. Tachycardia, lowered blood pressure, wheezing, and urticaria are classic signs of anaphylaxis. The patient's history of previously tolerating the antibiotic without issues suggests an acquired hypersensitivity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is unlikely as the patient has a history of taking the correct medication. Choice C (autoimmunity) does not fit the presentation of acute symptoms following antibiotic administration. Choice D is incorrect because the symptoms are consistent with an allergic reaction to the antibiotic.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following medications is associated with rapid acting insulin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin glulisine (Apidra). This is a rapid-acting insulin because it has a quick onset of action, typically within 15 minutes. It is designed to be taken just before or after a meal to help control blood sugar spikes. Insulin detemir (Levemir) is a long-acting insulin, Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, and Insulin glargine is an intermediate-acting insulin. Therefore, based on the onset of action and timing of administration, insulin glulisine is the correct choice for rapid-acting insulin.