Iron-refractory iron deficiency anemia (IRIDA) is a rare inherited condition characterized by congenital iron deficiency anemia, poor response to oral iron, and partial but incomplete response to intravenous iron therapy. Which is the genetic mutation associated with IRIDA?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C (TMPRSS6) Rationale: 1. TMPRSS6 gene encodes matriptase-2, a negative regulator of hepcidin, which controls iron absorption. 2. Mutations in TMPRSS6 lead to elevated hepcidin levels, causing iron-refractory iron deficiency anemia. 3. TFR2, H63D, and EPOR are not directly involved in hepcidin regulation or iron absorption. Summary: A (TFR2), B (H63D), and D (EPOR) are not associated with the pathophysiology of IRIDA, which is primarily linked to mutations in the TMPRSS6 gene affecting hepcidin regulation and iron absorption.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the client's fears and coping mechanisms allows the nurse to provide individualized support and interventions to address the client's anxiety effectively. By understanding the client's specific concerns, the nurse can provide tailored information, emotional support, and coping strategies to help the client feel more comfortable during the procedure. Option B is incorrect as simply reassuring the client may not address the underlying anxieties and fears. Option C is inappropriate as sedation should only be used if absolutely necessary and after other non-pharmacological interventions have been exhausted. Option D is incorrect because bone marrow aspiration and biopsy are typically performed with local anesthesia, so the client will not be asleep during the procedure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. 2. Neurologic deficits are common due to microvascular thrombi affecting the brain. 3. Thrombosis is a hallmark feature of TTP, with platelet aggregation leading to microthrombi formation. 4. Therefore, choice A is not associated with TTP because thrombosis is a defining feature.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Immunophenotype of mature B cell is not a good prognostic factor in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) because it indicates a more aggressive subtype. B: Gender being female is a good prognostic factor in ALL as females generally have better outcomes. C: Chromosomal number hyperploidy is a good prognostic factor as it is associated with a favorable prognosis. D: Age 4 to 10 years old is also a good prognostic factor as children in this age group tend to have better outcomes in ALL.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nodular sclerosis subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma. It is common in young women due to its peak incidence in the 20s-30s. This subtype has a good prognosis as it is the most indolent with a high cure rate. It is characterized by fibrotic bands dividing the lymph node into nodules, containing lacunar (Reed-Sternberg) cells. The other choices (B: Mixed cellularity, C: Lymphocyte predominance, D: Lymphocyte depletion) are incorrect: B: Mixed cellularity is more common in older adults and has a less favorable prognosis. C: Lymphocyte predominance is rare and has a favorable prognosis, but it is more common in young males, not young women. D: Lymphocyte depletion is rare, aggressive, and associated with a poor prognosis, not common in young women.