Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by all the following Except:

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Pediatric NCLEX Practice Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by all the following Except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia is a common condition in children, characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells due to insufficient iron levels. The correct answer, option D, "None of the above," is the correct choice because iron deficiency anemia does not present with splenomegaly, which is an enlargement of the spleen. Option A, microcytic hypochromic anemia, is characteristic of iron deficiency anemia, where red blood cells are smaller and paler than normal. Option C, stating that iron deficiency anemia usually occurs at age 2-4 years, is also correct as this age range is a common period for the development of iron deficiency due to rapid growth and inadequate dietary intake. Educationally, understanding the characteristics of iron deficiency anemia is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing the signs and symptoms can lead to early intervention and treatment. By differentiating iron deficiency anemia from other types of anemia, nurses can provide appropriate care and education to parents on dietary changes and supplementation. This knowledge is essential for pediatric nurses to promote optimal health outcomes in children.

Question 2 of 5

According to Piaget, the 6-month-old infant would be in what developmental stage?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the 6-month-old infant would typically be in the stage of Secondary Circular Reactions. This stage occurs between 4 to 8 months of age and is characterized by the infant's increasing ability to repeat actions that produce interesting results. This is different from the previous stage of Primary Circular Reactions (Option B) where the focus is on repeating pleasurable actions involving the infant's own body. Option A, Use of reflexes, is incorrect because it refers to the newborn stage where actions are primarily reflexive and not purposeful. Option D, Coordination of secondary schemata, is incorrect as it pertains to the later stage of sensorimotor development when the child can coordinate different schemas to achieve a goal, usually around 18-24 months. Understanding Piaget's stages of cognitive development is crucial for pediatric nurses as it helps in assessing a child's developmental progress and identifying any potential delays or abnormalities. By knowing the typical behaviors and milestones associated with each stage, nurses can provide appropriate care and support for infants and children.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is guiding parents in selecting a daycare facility for their infant. Which of the following is especially important to consider when making the selection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In selecting a daycare facility for an infant, the health practices of the facility are crucial. Infants have developing immune systems and are more susceptible to infections. A facility that prioritizes health practices, such as proper hygiene, immunization policies, illness containment procedures, and staff training on health protocols, is essential for the well-being of the child. Option B, a structured learning environment, while important, is not as critical for an infant in a daycare setting. Infants primarily need a safe, nurturing environment that meets their basic needs for feeding, sleeping, and diaper changing. Option C, socioeconomic status of children, and Option D, cultural similarities of children, are not the primary factors to consider when selecting a daycare facility for an infant. The focus should be on health and safety practices that directly impact the infant's well-being. In an educational context, this question highlights the importance of prioritizing health and safety when making decisions about childcare for infants. It underscores the critical role that healthcare practices play in ensuring a safe and healthy environment for young children. By understanding this concept, nurses and parents can make informed choices that promote the optimal development and well-being of infants in daycare settings.

Question 4 of 5

Adrenal production of androgen with development of underarm odor and faint genital hair (adrenarche) may occur as early as

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Adrenal production of androgen with the development of underarm odor and faint genital hair (adrenarche) typically occurs around the age of 8 years old. This is because adrenarche is a normal part of puberty and is associated with the maturation of the adrenal glands. During this stage, the adrenal glands begin to produce increased levels of androgens, leading to the development of secondary sexual characteristics like underarm odor and genital hair. Option A) 4 years old is too early for the onset of adrenarche as it usually occurs later in childhood. Option B) 5 years old is still too early for adrenarche to occur as it typically happens later in the prepubertal period. Option C) 6 years old is also premature for the onset of adrenarche as it usually occurs closer to the start of puberty around age 8. Understanding the timing of adrenarche is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients, as it helps in assessing normal growth and development patterns. Knowing when to expect these normal physiological changes can aid in identifying potential issues or delays in development. This knowledge is especially important for nurses and nurse practitioners preparing for the NCLEX exam, as it demonstrates a solid understanding of pediatric endocrinology and normal growth processes in children.

Question 5 of 5

Smoking during pregnancy is associated with an average decrease in fetal weight by

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing and maternal-child health, understanding the impact of maternal behaviors on fetal development is crucial. Smoking during pregnancy is a significant risk factor with serious consequences for the unborn child. The correct answer to the question, "Smoking during pregnancy is associated with an average decrease in fetal weight by," is C) 500 g. Smoking during pregnancy is known to restrict the flow of oxygen and vital nutrients to the fetus, leading to intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). This condition results in lower birth weight, with estimates suggesting an average decrease of 500 grams in infants born to mothers who smoke during pregnancy. This decrease in fetal weight can have long-term implications for the child's health and development. Option A) 100 g and Option B) 200 g are lower values and do not fully capture the extent of the impact of smoking on fetal weight. Option D) 400 g is closer but still underestimates the average decrease associated with maternal smoking. Educationally, this question serves to emphasize the importance of educating pregnant women about the risks of smoking and the critical need to maintain a smoke-free environment during pregnancy. Nurses play a vital role in providing anticipatory guidance and support to expectant mothers to promote healthy behaviors and optimal outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Understanding the specific effects of smoking on fetal development reinforces the significance of smoking cessation interventions during pregnancy.

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