Iron chelating agents are used for treatment of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Iron chelating agents are used for the treatment of chronic hemolytic anemia because this condition is characterized by increased breakdown of red blood cells, leading to the release of excess iron into the bloodstream. Iron chelators bind to this excess iron and help remove it from the body, preventing iron overload and associated complications. Option A, leukemia, is incorrect because iron chelating agents are not typically used in the treatment of leukemia. Leukemia is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, and its treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and sometimes stem cell transplants. Option B, lymphoma, is also incorrect as iron chelators are not a standard part of lymphoma treatment. Lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system, and treatment typically involves chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiation therapy, or a combination of these. Option C, Wilms tumor, is incorrect because iron chelating agents are not indicated for the treatment of this specific type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Treatment for Wilms tumor usually involves surgery, chemotherapy, and sometimes radiation therapy. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of iron chelating agents in chronic hemolytic anemia is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children with this condition. This knowledge helps nurses provide safe and effective care, monitor for potential side effects of iron chelators, and educate patients and families on the importance of treatment compliance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is indicated for the treatment of herpes simplex virus infections. This antiviral medication specifically targets and inhibits the replication of herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2. Herpes simplex virus infections commonly manifest as oral or genital lesions and acyclovir is effective in reducing the severity and duration of these symptoms. Option B) Enteroviruses: Acyclovir is not effective against enteroviruses as it specifically targets herpes simplex viruses. Enteroviruses can cause a variety of illnesses such as hand, foot, and mouth disease, meningitis, and myocarditis. Option C) Mumps: Acyclovir is not indicated for the treatment of mumps. Mumps is caused by a different virus and does not respond to acyclovir treatment. Option D) Measles: Acyclovir is not used to treat measles. Measles is caused by a different virus and requires a different treatment approach. Understanding the indications for specific medications is crucial in pediatric nursing practice to ensure safe and effective patient care. Knowing the appropriate use of medications like acyclovir can help pediatric nurses provide optimal treatment for their young patients with herpes simplex virus infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Large atrial septal defect (ASD). A mid-diastolic rumble murmur at the lower left sternal border is characteristic of ASD. This murmur occurs due to increased flow across the tricuspid valve during diastole, leading to turbulence. Option A) Large PDA usually presents with a continuous murmur, not a mid-diastolic rumble. Option B) Severe mitral incompetence typically causes a holosystolic murmur, not a mid-diastolic rumble. Option C) Aortic rheumatic carditis with mitral valvulitis would manifest with different murmurs associated with valvular dysfunction, not a mid-diastolic rumble. Educationally, it is crucial for pediatric nurses to understand the specific characteristics of murmurs associated with different structural heart diseases to accurately assess and diagnose pediatric patients. Recognizing the unique features of each murmur can guide appropriate interventions and referrals for further evaluation and treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding blood pressure (BP) ranges and classifications is crucial for early detection and management of hypertension. Stage 1 hypertension in children is defined as average SBP or DBP levels between the 95th and 99th percentile for age, sex, and height on multiple occasions. This means the correct answer is D. Option A (average SBP or DBP levels <90th percentile) is incorrect because this range is considered normal BP in children. Option B (average SBP or DBP levels > 99th percentile) is incorrect as it would indicate severe hypertension. Option C (BP > 120/80) is not specific to pediatric hypertension criteria. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of accurate BP measurements in children and the need to interpret them based on age-specific percentiles. Understanding these classifications helps nurses identify and intervene early in hypertension cases, preventing long-term cardiovascular complications. Regular monitoring, proper technique, and knowledge of pediatric BP norms are essential skills for pediatric nurses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the severe form of Tetralogy of Fallot, marked cardiomegaly in chest X-ray is not typically seen. The correct answer, A, is true because cardiomegaly is not a common feature of Tetralogy of Fallot. Central cyanosis and clubbing (B) are common due to decreased pulmonary blood flow and chronic hypoxemia. Basal ejection systolic murmur and a single 2nd heart sound (C) are characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot due to the pulmonary stenosis and right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. Right ventricular hypertrophy on ECG (D) is also expected in Tetralogy of Fallot due to the increased workload on the right ventricle. Educationally, understanding the specific signs and symptoms of Tetralogy of Fallot is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide appropriate care and interventions for children with this congenital heart defect. By knowing the distinct features of the condition, nurses can monitor and manage the child's condition effectively, ensuring optimal outcomes and quality of life. This knowledge also enables early recognition of complications and timely interventions, ultimately improving patient outcomes and well-being.