ATI RN
Cardiovascular Pharmacology Drug Class Questions
Question 1 of 5
Irbesartan (an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist) is contraindicated in:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A diabetic hypertensive patient came to you complaining of irritant dry cough that started with the intake of an anti-hypertensive drug. This drug is most likely:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A client is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for acute anxiety. What client history should cause a nurse to question this order?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of alcohol use disorder. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, which can interact with alcohol, leading to respiratory depression and increased sedation. A history of alcohol use disorder suggests a potential for misuse or overdose. Choices B, C, and D do not directly contraindicate the use of alprazolam for acute anxiety.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who has received lithium for 3 weeks to control acute mania has the following symptoms: coarse hand tremor, diarrhea, vomiting, lethargy, and mild confusion. The priority nursing action should be to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. The patient is showing signs of lithium toxicity, indicated by symptoms like tremors, diarrhea, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. 2. Obtaining a stat lithium level is crucial to confirm toxicity levels. 3. Holding lithium pending results prevents further toxicity and guides appropriate treatment adjustments. 4. Administering Cogentin (A) may mask symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of lithium toxicity. 5. Providing reassurance (B) is important but not the priority when the patient is experiencing potential toxicity. 6. Assisting the patient to decrease sodium intake (D) is not the priority as it does not address the immediate need to manage lithium toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
Sertraline (Zoloft) has been prescribed for a client complaining of poor appetite, fatigue, and anhedonia. Which consideration should the nurse recognize as influencing this prescriptive choice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Zoloft has less adverse side effects than other antidepressants. This is because Zoloft is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) known for having a favorable side effect profile compared to other antidepressants. SSRIs are generally well-tolerated and have fewer side effects such as sedation, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. This makes Zoloft a suitable choice for clients experiencing poor appetite and fatigue. A: Zoloft being less expensive is not a primary consideration when choosing an antidepressant for a client as efficacy and side effect profile are more crucial. B: Zoloft is not extremely sedating, so it may not be the best choice for addressing sleep disturbances. D: While Zoloft may start to improve depressive symptoms relatively quickly, this is not the main influencing factor in this prescriptive choice.