ATI RN
Genitourinary System Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for the following * complications of furosemide therapy:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for dilutional hyponatremia, which can occur as a complication of furosemide therapy due to excessive diuresis leading to low sodium levels. This solution helps restore normal sodium levels without affecting the fluid balance. Summary: A: Hypokalemia - Furosemide therapy can cause hypokalemia, which is usually treated with potassium supplements, not NSS infusion. B: Severe dehydration - NSS infusion may be used for severe dehydration but is not specific to furosemide therapy complications. D: None of the above - Incorrect, as C is the correct answer for dilutional hyponatremia.
Question 2 of 5
Regarding UTI's will not increase your risk of developing one?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Being female. Being female does not increase the risk of developing a UTI. UTIs are more common in females due to shorter urethras. Pregnancy (A) can increase UTI risk due to hormonal changes. Diabetes mellitus (B) can affect the immune system, leading to higher UTI susceptibility. Catheterization (D) introduces bacteria into the urinary tract, significantly increasing the risk of UTIs. Overall, being female alone does not directly increase the risk of UTIs compared to the other factors mentioned.
Question 3 of 5
Which is incorrect of renal transplant patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: Identical twin donor and recipient still require immunosuppression due to minor histocompatibility antigens. Failure to suppress the immune system can lead to rejection. Graft rejection may present with symptoms such as graft tenderness, decreased urine output, and increased creatinine levels. Infections are indeed a common cause of morbidity and mortality in renal transplant patients, with a high incidence within the first year post-transplant. Therefore, choice A is incorrect as even identical twin donors and recipients require immunosuppression to prevent rejection.
Question 4 of 5
When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man, the nurse notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because the description of deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles in a 25-year-old man is indicative of normal changes associated with development and aging. The nurse should recognize this as a normal finding and proceed with the examination without any further intervention. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Squeezing the glans to check for discharge is not indicated based on the information provided. This action is unnecessary and could potentially cause discomfort or harm to the patient. D: Assessing the testicles for masses or painless lumps is not relevant to the described findings of pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with sebaceous follicles. This choice does not align with the presented information and would not be appropriate in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
When assessing the scrotum of a male patient, the nurse notices the presence of multiple firm, nontender, yellow 1-cm nodules. The nurse knows that these nodules are most likely:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sebaceous cysts. Sebaceous cysts are commonly seen as firm, nontender, yellow nodules in the scrotum. They are benign growths formed from blocked sebaceous glands. Urethritis (A) would present with symptoms such as pain or burning during urination, not as nodules on the scrotum. Subcutaneous plaques (C) are typically seen in conditions like Peyronie's disease, not as discrete nodules. COM (D) is not a recognized term in this context.