ATI RN
ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Intravenous (IV) therapy is ordered for a patient with a serum sodium of 150 mEq/L. Which of the following does the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with a high serum sodium level (hypernatremia), the goal is to lower the sodium concentration gradually to avoid rapid changes and prevent cerebral edema. A hypotonic solution like 0.25% normal saline (0.25% NS) is appropriate for this situation. The lower sodium content in the solution can help reduce the elevated serum sodium level by diluting it while providing some fluid for hydration. Solutions like 0.45% NS, 3% NS, and 5% NS have osmolarities that are higher than normal serum osmolality and would not be suitable for correcting hypernatremia.
Question 2 of 5
It is defined as the fraction of drug absorbed by the body
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bioavailability is defined as the fraction of drug that reaches systemic circulation in an unchanged form after administration. It is a crucial pharmacokinetic parameter that reflects the amount and rate of drug absorption. Bioavailability can be influenced by various factors such as the route of administration, drug formulation, and first-pass metabolism. Monitoring bioavailability is important in determining the efficacy and dosage requirements of a drug.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is the most effective in the management of absence seizures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Absence seizures, brief lapses in consciousness, require specific antiepileptics. Carbamazepine, effective for focal seizures, can worsen absence seizures by enhancing sodium channel activity. Topiramate and clobazam have broader uses but limited efficacy here. Phenytoin suits tonic-clonic, not absence. Ethosuximide reduces T-type calcium currents in thalamic neurons, directly targeting absence seizure mechanisms, making it most effective. Its specificity ensures rapid control, critical for pediatric epilepsy management.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. The patient is in need of rapid diuresis. Which class of diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min indicates impaired kidney function or renal insufficiency. Loop diuretics are the preferred choice for patients with reduced kidney function because they act on the loop of Henle in the nephron, which is independent of creatinine clearance. They are effective for rapid diuresis even in patients with significantly reduced renal function. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are commonly used in patients with acute or chronic kidney disease to promote diuresis and manage fluid overload. Thiazides are not as effective in patients with low glomerular filtration rates, and osmotic diuretics may not be appropriate for rapid diuresis in this scenario. Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used for rapid diuresis but rather for maintaining potassium balance in cases where patients are at risk for hypokalemia.
Question 5 of 5
One hour after receiving intravenous morphine sulfate, a patient reports generalized itching. The nurse assesses the patient and notes clear breath sounds, no rash, respirations of 14 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 68 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should prepare an epinephrine injection in case of an anaphylactic reaction. While generalized itching is a common side effect of morphine, the presence of itching along with clear breath sounds and absence of rash may suggest a possible allergic reaction. Anaphylactic reactions can be life-threatening and may present with symptoms such as itching, respiratory distress, and cardiovascular collapse. Therefore, having epinephrine readily available is crucial in case an anaphylactic reaction occurs, as it is the treatment of choice for such a reaction.