ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the * treatment of the following condition:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Mannitol is typically used for cerebral edema due to its osmotic diuretic properties that reduce intracranial pressure. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used for conditions like pulmonary edema. Therefore, intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the treatment of cerebral edema. Summary: A: Cardiac edema - Loop diuretics like furosemide are commonly used in cardiac edema, not Mannitol. C: Cirrhotic edema - Loop diuretics are used in cirrhotic edema, but Mannitol is not typically indicated. D: Pulmonary edema - Furosemide is commonly used in pulmonary edema, but Mannitol is not indicated for this condition.
Question 2 of 5
The microscopic functional unit of the kidney Urinary bladder Urethra Putting it all together 19 Explain, in your own words, whether the following substances would normally be expected to be present
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein. In the urine, the presence of protein can indicate kidney damage or malfunction. Normally, the kidneys filter out waste products, toxins, and excess substances, but proteins are too large to pass through healthy kidney filters. If protein is found in the urine, it suggests a problem with the kidney's filtration system. This can be a sign of conditions like kidney disease or diabetes. Rationale for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Urinary bladder and urethra are not typically associated with the presence of substances like protein in urine. C: Glucose in the urine may indicate diabetes or other health issues, but it is not the most common substance to be tested for in routine urinalysis. D: Kidney dialysis is a treatment for kidney failure, not a substance present in urine.
Question 3 of 5
Which is not a relatively common finding in ESRF patients?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypophosphatemia. In end-stage renal failure (ESRF) patients, hypophosphatemia is not a common finding due to impaired renal excretion of phosphate. Metastatic calcification (A) occurs due to high calcium-phosphate product, peripheral neuropathy (B) can result from uremic toxins, and hyperparathyroidism (D) is common in ESRF due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Therefore, hypophosphatemia is the least likely finding in ESRF patients.
Question 4 of 5
An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prostate. The prostate is an accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs as it produces and secretes fluid that is a component of semen. The testis (A) is the primary male reproductive organ responsible for producing sperm. The scrotum (C) is the external sac that houses the testes. Choice B does not seem to be a valid option.
Question 5 of 5
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, the patient has an erection. The nurses most appropriate action or response is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: reassure the patient that it is normal. An erection during a genital examination is a normal physiological response and not under the patient's control. By reassuring the patient, the nurse helps alleviate any potential embarrassment or anxiety. Asking for someone else (A) may further embarrass the patient. Continuing as if nothing happened (B) may ignore the patient's emotional well-being. Stopping the examination and leaving (D) without explanation can create confusion and discomfort.