ATI RN
Genitourinary System Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the treatment of the following condition:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary edema. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is commonly used to treat pulmonary edema by reducing fluid overload in the lungs. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This helps to alleviate the congestion and fluid accumulation in the lungs seen in pulmonary edema. Mannitol, on the other hand, is typically used for cerebral edema due to its osmotic diuretic properties. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as furosemide is not the preferred diuretic for cardiac, cerebral, or cirrhotic edema.
Question 2 of 5
Why should the nurse assess the client's pressure dressing frequently after an angiography procedure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To note hematoma formation. After an angiography procedure, there is a risk of bleeding under the pressure dressing, leading to hematoma formation. By assessing the dressing frequently, the nurse can detect any signs of hematoma early, preventing complications such as compromised circulation or infection. Checking for frank bleeding (Choice A) is important but less likely to occur under a pressure dressing. Arterial occlusion (Choice C) is a serious but less immediate concern post-angiography. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice D) is also important but not specific to monitoring for hematoma formation.
Question 3 of 5
One of your patients is awaiting laboratory results for kidney function. The patient has recently recovered from a streptococcal throat infection. The patient has most likely developed symptoms of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glomerulonephritis. Streptococcal infection can lead to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), an immune-mediated inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This results in hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema. Pyelonephritis (choice A) is a bacterial infection of the kidneys, not related to streptococcal infection. Nephrolithiasis (choice B) is the formation of kidney stones, which is not directly linked to streptococcal infection. Chronic renal failure (choice C) is a long-term decline in kidney function, not typically caused by streptococcal infection.
Question 4 of 5
Which laboratory result is of most concern for a patient with cystitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine bacteria count of 100,000 colonies/mL indicates a significant bacterial infection, which is concerning for cystitis. This result suggests an active infection in the urinary tract, requiring prompt treatment. A: Serum WBC of 9000/mm³ is within the normal range and may not necessarily indicate an active infection. B: Urinalysis with 1-2 WBCs present is also within the normal range and may not be indicative of an acute infection. D: Serum hematocrit of 36% is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood and is not directly related to cystitis.
Question 5 of 5
If necessary, your physician can increase your dose up to 40 mg per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The statement indicates the possibility of increasing the dose up to 40 mg, implying that it is within the physician's discretion. Step 2: The use of the word "can" suggests the potential for the physician to make such an adjustment. Step 3: The phrase "if necessary" implies that the dose adjustment will be based on the individual's specific needs. Step 4: Therefore, it is true that the physician has the authority to increase the dose up to 40 mg per day based on the patient's condition and requirements.