ATI RN
Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
Intravenous atropine at low doses is commonly used by oral surgeons during surgical procedures to remove impacted wisdom teeth. The rationale behind the use of this agent in this situation likely involves which of the following beneficial effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, a muscarinic antagonist, is used in oral surgery to manage parasympathetic effects. Option , gastrointestinal relaxation, is a minor effect but not the primary goal in wisdom tooth extraction. Option , drying oral mucous membranes, is correct-by inhibiting salivary glands, atropine reduces secretions, keeping the surgical field clear, a key benefit in oral procedures. Option , inducing tachycardia, occurs but isn't the intent; low doses minimize this. Option , pupillary dilation, happens but is irrelevant to oral surgery. Option (E), reducing urinary motility, is incidental. The drying effect directly aids visibility and cleanliness during surgery, aligning with clinical practice. At low doses, atropine selectively targets salivary inhibition over systemic effects, making it practical and effective. This rationale reflects its established use in anesthesia to optimize surgical conditions without unnecessary cardiovascular or ocular complications.
Question 2 of 5
A 36-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a one-car motor vehicle accident where his car struck a telephone pole. He is a known chronic alcoholic. He smells alcohol on his breath, and his blood alcohol level is 300 mg/dL. Which of the following treatments should be given to him if he goes into alcohol withdrawal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal in a chronic alcoholic (300 mg/dL) requires lorazepam . This benzodiazepine mimics alcohol's GABA enhancement, preventing seizures and agitation. Buspirone treats anxiety, not withdrawal. Pentobarbital is excessive. Phenytoin targets seizures alone. Saline (E) supports but doesn't treat. Lorazepam's safety is key.
Question 3 of 5
Ingestion of methanol in wood spirits would cause which of the following to happen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Methanol, a toxic alcohol, is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into formaldehyde, then by aldehyde dehydrogenase into formic acid, causing severe metabolic acidosis and blindness via optic nerve damage. This initial step—formation of formaldehyde—is the critical toxic event, distinguishing methanol poisoning from ethanol's safer metabolism. Nephrotoxicity isn't primary; formic acid affects mitochondria and eyes more. Hypotension and vomiting occur secondary to acidosis but aren't the defining process. Glycolic acid is a metabolite of ethylene glycol, not methanol. Methanol inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase minimally; its danger lies in metabolite accumulation. Formaldehyde production initiates the cascade, making it the most direct and accurate consequence of methanol ingestion.
Question 4 of 5
The client receives nystatin (Nilstat) for a fungal infection in the mouth. The nurse plans to do medication education prior to discharge. What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nystatin is an antifungal used for oral candidiasis (thrush), and its effectiveness depends on proper administration. For oral infections, the medication must remain in contact with the affected mucosal surfaces as long as possible. Dissolving the tablet in the mouth ensures prolonged exposure to the fungus, allowing it to act locally before swallowing, which is the recommended method for tablets or lozenges. Using a straw might apply to suspensions but isn't standard for preventing discoloration, which isn't a primary concern with nystatin. Crushing and mixing with juice alters the drug's intended delivery, reducing contact time with the infection site. Swallowing whole bypasses the oral mucosa entirely, rendering it ineffective for thrush. Thus, choice A aligns with nystatin's mechanism, ensuring optimal therapeutic outcomes through direct mucosal contact.
Question 5 of 5
The physician orders penicillin for a female client who has a sinus infection. What is a priority question to ask the client prior to administering the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Penicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic, is generally safe (Category B) but requires pregnancy status clarification before administration. Pregnancy alters drug metabolism and dosing, and while penicillin poses minimal fetal risk, confirming status ensures no hypersensitivity or rare contraindications are overlooked, prioritizing maternal and fetal safety. Future pregnancy plans are less immediate, affecting long-term considerations, not current use. Breastfeeding matters due to minimal excretion in milk, but it's secondary to current pregnancy. Birth control interaction is negligible with penicillin, unlike other antibiotics. Asking 'Are you pregnant?' addresses the most urgent safety concern, aligning with nursing's role in preventing adverse outcomes, making A the priority question before initiating therapy.