ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Exam Flashcards Questions
Question 1 of 5
Interpret the following ABG results (pH: 7.48 - PaCO2: 42 - HCO3:30):
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) Metabolic alkalosis without compensation. To understand why this is the correct interpretation of the ABG results, let's break it down: 1. pH: 7.48 - The pH is elevated, indicating alkalosis. 2. PaCO2: 42 - The PaCO2 is within normal range (35-45 mmHg), indicating that there is no primary respiratory acidosis or alkalosis. 3. HCO3: 30 - The HCO3 level is elevated, indicating metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, the ABG results show a high pH and high bicarbonate level without any significant compensation from the respiratory system, suggesting a primary metabolic alkalosis without any respiratory component. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Metabolic acidosis without compensation: This is incorrect because the pH is elevated, not decreased, and the HCO3 level is high, indicating alkalosis, not acidosis. B) Respiratory alkalosis with partial compensation: This is incorrect because there is no significant decrease in PaCO2 to indicate respiratory alkalosis, and the HCO3 level is high, indicating metabolic alkalosis. C) Respiratory alkalosis with full compensation: This is incorrect because there is no significant decrease in PaCO2 to indicate respiratory alkalosis, and the HCO3 level is high, indicating metabolic alkalosis. Educational context: Understanding how to interpret ABG results is crucial in pediatric nursing as it helps in identifying and managing various acid-base imbalances in pediatric patients. It is essential for nurses to be able to differentiate between respiratory and metabolic imbalances and understand the compensatory mechanisms involved. This knowledge is vital for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients with complex health needs.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following causes of anemia is associated with microcytosis:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Beta-thalassemia, which is associated with microcytosis. Beta-thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder characterized by reduced production of hemoglobin, leading to small red blood cells (microcytosis) and anemia. Option A) Folic acid deficiency is associated with macrocytic anemia, not microcytosis. Folic acid is necessary for red blood cell production, and its deficiency leads to enlarged red blood cells. Option B) Immune hemolytic anemia is characterized by the premature destruction of red blood cells by the immune system, leading to hemolysis. This condition does not specifically cause microcytosis. Option C) Hypothyroidism can lead to normocytic anemia, where red blood cells are normal in size but insufficient in quantity. It is not directly associated with microcytosis. In a pediatric nursing context, understanding the different causes of anemia and their characteristic features is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Recognizing the link between beta-thalassemia and microcytosis helps nurses provide targeted care and education to patients and their families. It also highlights the importance of thorough assessment and interpretation of laboratory findings in pediatric patients presenting with anemia.
Question 3 of 5
A 6-year-old boy with hereditary spherocytosis developed transient aplastic crisis following a recent viral infection. The most probable incriminated viral infection is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Parvovirus type B 19. Parvovirus B19 is known to cause transient aplastic crisis in patients with hereditary spherocytosis due to their increased susceptibility to infection-induced hemolysis. Parvovirus B19 infects red blood cell precursors in the bone marrow, leading to decreased red blood cell production and exacerbation of anemia in patients with hereditary spherocytosis. Option A) German measles virus (rubella) is not typically associated with transient aplastic crisis in hereditary spherocytosis. Option B) Human herpes virus 6 is not commonly linked to aplastic crisis in hereditary spherocytosis. Option C) Adenovirus is not a common cause of transient aplastic crisis in individuals with hereditary spherocytosis. Educationally, understanding the specific viral infections that can trigger complications in patients with hereditary spherocytosis is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide appropriate care and monitoring for these patients. This knowledge helps nurses anticipate and manage potential complications effectively, ensuring better outcomes for pediatric patients with hereditary spherocytosis.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 7 pounds at birth. The nurse should expect the infant to now weigh approximately how many pounds?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B) 15 pounds. Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age, and this is known as the doubling birth weight milestone. In this case, the infant's birth weight was 7 pounds, so it is reasonable to expect the infant to weigh around 14 pounds by 6 months. Considering normal growth patterns, the closest option is 15 pounds. Option A) 10 pounds is too low for a 6-month-old infant who started at 7 pounds at birth. Infants usually exceed their birth weight by 6 months. Option C) 20 pounds is too high for a 6-month-old infant who started at 7 pounds at birth. While infants do gain weight rapidly in the first year, reaching 20 pounds by 6 months would be excessive. Option D) 25 pounds is significantly higher than the expected weight for a 6-month-old infant who started at 7 pounds. Infants do not typically reach this weight until closer to their first birthday. Understanding pediatric growth and development milestones is crucial for nurses caring for infants. Monitoring weight gain is essential in assessing overall health and nutrition. By knowing the expected weight ranges at different ages, nurses can identify potential issues early and provide appropriate interventions to support optimal growth and development.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is interviewing the father of 10-month-old Megan. She is playing on the floor when she notices an electric outlet and reaches up to touch it. Her father says no firmly and removes her from near the outlet. The nurse should use this opportunity to teach the father that Megan:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Megan is old enough to understand the word no. This option is correct because infants as young as 10 months old can begin to grasp simple commands and instructions. By firmly saying no and removing her from the dangerous situation, Megan's father is beginning to teach her boundaries and safety. This is a crucial aspect of infant development as it helps them understand cause and effect, learn about dangers, and start building a foundation for discipline. Option B) is incorrect because infants at 10 months are capable of understanding simple words like no, especially when consistently reinforced with actions that follow the words. Option C) is incorrect because infants do not have innate knowledge of dangers such as electric outlets; they rely on caregivers to protect them and teach them about potential hazards. Option D) is incorrect and inappropriate as spanking is not a recommended or effective method of teaching safety or discipline to children. In an educational context, it is important for nurses to provide parents with guidance on age-appropriate discipline strategies and safety measures. By explaining the developmental capabilities of infants and the importance of consistent and positive reinforcement, nurses can help parents create a safe and nurturing environment for their children. This scenario also highlights the significance of early intervention in teaching children about safety to prevent accidents and injuries.