Infection of several persons without any epidemiological link is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: sporadic disease. Infection of several persons without any epidemiological link is considered sporadic because it occurs in a random and isolated manner, with no clear pattern or connection between cases. It is not classified as an epidemic (A) because it does not involve a sudden increase in the number of cases within a specific population. It is also not endemic (C) as endemic diseases are constantly present in a particular region or population. Lastly, it is not a pandemic (D) which refers to a global outbreak affecting a large number of people across different countries.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum point towards a motile bacterium. Step 2: The absence of spores or capsules and preference for alkaline conditions further narrows down the possibilities. Step 3: Vibrio cholerae fits all criteria as it is a curved, motile, Gram-negative bacillus that thrives in alkaline environments. Summary: Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobe, Salmonella and Shigella are non-flagellated, and all of them can form capsules or spores, unlike Vibrio cholerae.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smooth S colonies. Bacteria with long O-specific chains are known as smooth strains, and when cultured on solid growth media, they form smooth colonies due to the presence of the O antigen. This gives them a glossy appearance. Rough R colonies (Choice B) lack O antigen and appear rough. Mucoid -M colonies (Choice C) are associated with capsules, not O-specific chains. H colonies (Choice D) are not relevant to the O-specific chains. Smooth S colonies are the characteristic phenotype of bacteria with long O-specific chains when cultured on solid media.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Treponema pallidum. The scenario describes symptoms of primary syphilis, which is caused by Treponema pallidum. The presence of a painless ulcer (chancre) and enlarged inguinal lymph nodes are characteristic of syphilis. Dark field microscopic examination showing motile, curved spirochetes is highly specific for Treponema pallidum. Incorrect explanations: A: Chlamydia trachomatis typically causes urethritis or cervicitis, not painless ulcers. C: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, which presents with purulent discharge, not painless ulcers. D: Herpes simplex virus type 2 causes genital herpes, leading to painful ulcers and vesicles, not painless ulcers seen in syphilis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Negri bodies are not associated with measles but with rabies. Step 1: Measles is a childhood infection with a rash (A). Step 2: Koplik spots are small white spots on a red base found inside the mouth and are characteristic of measles (B). Step 3: Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with rabies virus, not measles (C). Step 4: Prophylaxis for measles is through the MMR vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine (D). Therefore, choice C is incorrect as it does not pertain to measles.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive diplococci suggest a pneumococcal infection. Step 2: Catalase-negative indicates Streptococcus. Step 3: Alpha-hemolysis matches S. pneumoniae's characteristics. Therefore, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is Gram-negative, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is not diplococci or alpha-hemolytic.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (69%). The UN projects that by 2050, around 69% of the world's population will live in urban areas. This is based on current global urbanization trends and population growth rates. Urban areas are experiencing rapid population growth due to factors like rural-to-urban migration and natural population increase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the expected urban population growth by 2050. A (35%), B (56%), and C (60%) are too low compared to the projected 69%. Urbanization is a significant global trend, and it is essential to consider the implications of this shift for sustainability, infrastructure development, and resource allocation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Arenaviridae family includes viruses with a segmented genome. 2. Lassa virus has a segmented genome, placing it in the Arenaviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 4. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 5. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family, not Arenaviridae. Summary: A: Lassa virus is correct because it has a segmented genome, characteristic of Arenaviridae. B, C, D: Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus, Rabies virus, and Epstein-Barr virus belong to different virus families, not Arenaviridae.