ATI RN
Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Induration along the ventral surface of the penis suggests which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Peyronie's disease is a condition characterized by the formation of fibrous scar tissue in the penis, leading to the development of plaques or indurations along the shaft of the penis, typically on the ventral surface. These plaques can cause penile curvature, pain, and erectile dysfunction. Urethral stricture, testicular carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts are not typically associated with indurations along the ventral surface of the penis.
Question 2 of 5
He is afebrile and his cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. On visualization of the anus you see no inflammation, masses, or fissures. Digital rectal examination reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. No discrete masses are felt. There is no blood on the glove or on guaiac testing. An analysis of the urine shows no red blood cells, white blood cells, or bacteria. What disorder of the anus, rectum, or prostate is this most likely to be?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the scenario is consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, typically seen in older males. The findings of a smooth, enlarged prostate on digital rectal examination without discrete masses, along with the absence of other alarming signs such as blood in the urine or on examination, make BPH the most likely diagnosis in this case.
Question 3 of 5
The following information is best placed in which category? "The patient was treated for an asthma exacerbation in the hospital last year; the patient has never been intubated."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The information provided about the patient being treated for an asthma exacerbation and not being intubated falls under the category of adult illnesses. Asthma is a common respiratory condition that affects people of various ages but is more prevalent in adults. The fact that the patient was treated for an asthma exacerbation and has not required intubation indicates a relevant medical history related to adult illnesses and respiratory conditions. This information would be considered when evaluating and managing the patient's current health status and potential risks related to respiratory issues.
Question 4 of 5
A 55-year-old married homemaker comes to your clinic, complaining of 6 months of vaginal itching and discomfort with intercourse. She has not had a discharge and has had no pain with urination. She has not had a period in over 2 years. She has no other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of removal of her gallbladder. She denies use of tobacco, alcohol, and illegal drugs. Her mother has breast cancer, and her father has coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, and Alzheimer's disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. There is no lymphadenopathy with palpation of the inguinal nodes. Visualization of the vulva shows dry skin but no lesions or masses. The labia are somewhat smaller than usual. Speculum examination reveals scant discharge, and the vaginal walls are red, dry, and bleed easily. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. The KOH whiff test produces no unusual odor and there are no clue cells on the wet prep. What form of vaginitis is this patient most likely to have?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with atrophic vaginitis, also known as vaginal atrophy. This condition typically occurs in postmenopausal women due to a decrease in estrogen levels, leading to thinning, drying, and inflammation of the vaginal walls. Symptoms of atrophic vaginitis include vaginal dryness, itching, discomfort with intercourse, and sometimes light bleeding after intercourse. The absence of vaginal discharge and the presence of vaginal dryness and bleeding easily upon examination suggest atrophic vaginitis as the most likely cause in this patient. Other causes of vaginitis such as Trichomonas vaginitis, Candida vaginitis, and bacterial vaginosis typically present with different symptoms and findings on examination.
Question 5 of 5
Based on this information, which of the following is appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response based on the information provided would be to give the patient information concerning the reduction of fat and cholesterol in her diet because she is obese. The patient's weight falls in the obese category, and addressing diet is an important step in managing obesity. Providing guidance on reducing fat and cholesterol intake can help the patient make healthier food choices and work towards achieving a healthier weight. Additionally, diet plays a significant role in overall health, so addressing nutrition is crucial when managing obesity. It is important to approach the topic sensitively and provide support and resources to help the patient make positive changes for their health.