ATI RN
Musculoskeletal disorder Questions
Question 1 of 5
Indometacin causes the following adverse effects:(Select one that does not apply)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Indometacin, an NSAID, can cause hepatitis (A), exacerbate cardiac failure (D) via fluid retention, and antagonize ACE inhibitors (E) by reducing prostaglandin-mediated vasodilation. B and C are not typical NSAID effects.
Question 2 of 5
What clinical sign will the PNP elicit when assessing a child with a Grade II ankle sprain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Grade II ankle sprain involves partial ligament tearing, leading to moderate pain, swelling, tenderness, and ecchymosis (A). Mild symptoms (B) suggest Grade I, severe symptoms with ecchymosis (C) suggest Grade III, and deformity (D) indicates a fracture or severe sprain.
Question 3 of 5
Ben is an 11-year-old soccer player and presents in the clinic with pain and swelling in both knees. A physical examination reveals swelling and focal tenderness at the tibial tuberosities, with pain worsening when asked to extend the knees against resistance. What is the treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This presentation is consistent with Osgood-Schlatter disease, a common overuse injury in active children. Ice and activity restriction (C) are the mainstay of treatment. Radiographs (A) and referral (B) are unnecessary unless symptoms persist or worsen, and stretching (D) may exacerbate pain initially.
Question 4 of 5
An overweight adolescent boy complains of pain in his hip that radiates to the medial aspect of his knee. He denies trauma and has not had a fever. You note upon exam that he is walking with a limp. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) (A) is common in overweight adolescents, presenting with hip pain radiating to the knee and a limp, without trauma or fever. Transient synovitis (B) is more common in younger children, Legg-Calve-Perthes (C) typically affects younger kids, and septic arthritis (D) usually involves fever.
Question 5 of 5
A 14-year-old boy who is overweight develops a unilateral limp with pain in the hip and knee on the affected side. Physical exam reveals external rotation of the hip when flexed and pain associated with attempts to internally rotate the hip. What is most important initially when managing this child’s condition
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This presentation suggests slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Preventing weight bearing with crutches or a wheelchair (C) is critical initially to avoid further slippage until orthopedic evaluation. Weight loss (A) and PT (B) are long-term, and referral (D) follows after stabilization.