Indicated the inhaled anesthetic,which may cause nephrotoxicity:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Sevoflurane is metabolized in the liver to release fluoride ions, which can lead to nephrotoxicity. 2. Fluoride ions can cause renal toxicity by forming calcium fluoride deposits in the renal tubules. 3. This can result in renal tubular dysfunction and acute kidney injury. 4. Halothane is hepatotoxic, not nephrotoxic. Nitrous oxide and diethyl ether do not cause nephrotoxicity. Summary: B: Sevoflurane is correct due to fluoride ion release causing nephrotoxicity. A, C, D are incorrect as they do not cause nephrotoxicity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart failure. Fibrinolytic drugs are not typically used in the treatment of heart failure because they are primarily used to dissolve blood clots. In central deep venous thrombosis (A), multiple pulmonary emboli (B), and acute myocardial infarction (D), the formation of blood clots is a major concern, making fibrinolytic drugs an appropriate treatment option to break down these clots and restore blood flow. In contrast, heart failure does not involve the presence of blood clots, so fibrinolytic drugs would not be effective in managing this condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that acts by inhibiting slow calcium channels in the SA and AV nodes, leading to decreased conduction velocity and reduced contractility of the heart muscle. This results in slowing of the heart rate and can be used to treat conditions such as supraventricular tachycardia. A: Quinidine is a Class I antiarrhythmic drug that works by blocking sodium channels. B: Adenosine acts on adenosine receptors and is used for the termination of supraventricular tachycardia. C: Flecainide is a Class Ic antiarrhythmic drug that blocks sodium channels. Therefore, the correct answer is Diltiazem (D) as it specifically targets calcium channels in the SA and AV nodes, distinguishing it from the other choices.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. Step 2: Sedative and hypnotic effects are common side effects of clonidine due to its action on the central nervous system. Step 3: Parkinson’s syndrome (Choice A) is not an unwanted effect of clonidine. Step 4: Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia (Choice C) are rare but serious adverse effects, not typically associated with clonidine. Step 5: Dry cough and respiratory depression (Choice D) are not common side effects of clonidine. Step 6: Therefore, the correct answer is B, as sedative and hypnotic effects are expected with clonidine use, making them unwanted effects.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The oral route is not the preferred method of administering ACTH because it has poor oral bioavailability. ACTH is typically administered parenterally. A: True, endogenous ACTH is also known as corticotropin. B: Correct, ACTH stimulates corticosteroid synthesis. C: True, ACTH is clinically useful in diagnosing adrenal insufficiency. Therefore, choice D is incorrect due to poor oral bioavailability compared to parenteral routes.